Greetings percho. Peace to you brother.
Do these verses speak of men as being spirits as also of angels being spirits?
Yes, I think within the biblical text both men and angels are referred to as being "spirits". Another one would be
“the prince of the power of air, the spirit who now works in the sons of disobedience” (Eph 2:2). Satan, an angel, is referred to as "the spirit".
I am not sure 1 peter 3:19 is speaking of men at all.
It is possible, imo.
Maybe it is speaking of the angels of Rev 12:9. And or; For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; And or; And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
Here is what we know for sure... (1) the who are "spirits", this could include men or angels since both are referenced that way within the biblical text; (2) these spirits are "in prison"; this might be a tough Greek word:
phylakē which could mean (a) keep watch, guard, or (b) a place where captives are kept; (3) these spirits were "once disobedient".
The captive saints view would seem to agree with (1) being spirits (men), (2) being confined by the power of sin, death, and Hades and needing set free to be in the presence of the Lord (3) victory being claimed (this would not be "preached" but "proclaimed"). However, would seem to stumble over being "once disobedient" and the possible reference to time, i.e., in the days of Noah.
On the other hand, the chained angel view would seem to agree with (1) being spirits (angels), (2) being confined by chains of darkness, (3) victory being claimed to these fallen angels (sort of a, in your face), (4) also agreeable with the "being disobedient".
The fallen angel view from that angle looks like it matches up more. But the fallen angel view doesn't seem to match up with the immediate context, imo.
This is the immediate context
(1Pe 3:18 NKJV) 18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit,
So Peter appears to set the context by saying, Christ suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust. THEN Peter would appear to be giving two examples of this.
1st example (which are of those in the past)
(1Pe 3:19-20 NKJV) 19 by whom also He went and preached to the spirits in prison, 20 who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while [the] ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water.
and then Peter writes...
and now appears to go into the second, in the present, example.
(1Pe 3:21 NKJV) 21 There is also an antitype which now saves us--baptism (not the removal of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God), through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,
The two example appear to be dissimilar in that one is "of old" and the other "present times". However, the two examples appear to be similar in the way of being both a time of "baptism". The first, a flood, symbolism of what was to come...and the second the fulfillment of that which was to come.
All of this leans more toward the release of the captive saints by the power of death and Hades, imo. Where this context would be a hurdle for the angel view. In other words, the angel view looks better in a vacuum of only v19-20 but doesn't seem to fit as well when v18 & 21 are brought in.
What do you think?
Peace to you brother