Hello preachinjesus
Hello
stilllearning said:Hebrew has nothing to do with it; This passage was written in Aramaic.
And I did look up the Aramaic word for “God” here, and it is “hla ‘elahh”.
Forgive the forgetfulness, I often struggle remembering what books are in Hebrew or Aramaic. Greek is more a specialized language. That said just because something is Aramaic doesn't not make it application in Hebrew. If you were to look at an Aramaic text next to a Hebrew text you'd never know the difference. Anyhoo....
Here it is in the original... דָּמֵה לְבַר־אֱלָהִֽין׃
The Hebrew and Aramaic type font here is difficult. For a better reference see http://www.hebrewoldtestament.com/B27C003.htm#V25
The actual transliteration is damah lebaur-'aelahiyn (well something like that the transliteration characters don't work BB code.) The second part is more important.
The term here אלהין isn't the precise word for God used in Daniel. Notice the nun at the end of the word. If it was the actual word for God elsewhere. This uses the nun and in this usage there is a cultic, or pagan notion. The more contemporary translations are a bit better I think. They recognize the nuance being used.
Also, the adjectival modifier is more signficant than you're giving it credit for here. That first word damah is the modifier and changes the whole concept of what the author is describing.
stilllearning said:There are no “theological and exegetical challenges” in this passage;The only problem some people have, is “believing it”!
The history of interpretation since the earliest days of the church show us there is a theological and exegetical challenge here. It is a diversely understood passage in the history of the church and by many outstanding theologians who you would credit as reasonable and wise.
Notice how the Vulgate, translated by Jerome, puts this key part of the verse: et species quarti similis filio Dei. Ah! Now that's interesting. He says something similar to the King James. Ironically, others, contemporary to Jerome, would say it says something different.
Simply stated, there's a lot to be intrigued with in the passage. Personally I don't accept Christophanies in the Old Testament. There is an incarnational issue there but nevertheless. This decision was made after much prayer and study. I've translated all the passages and read a stack of books on the issue. It isn't clear cut.
Now if there was an instance of a Christophany that I am more apt to accept it is this instance. Given the textual diversity of the options this one seems more likely to be an actual Christophany.
That said, there is zero reason for you to take swipes at other translations over this. IMHO, the King James mistranslates the terminology. It isn't grievous nor does it create error in the text. It simply could be said more clearly. That doesn't make me want to use the KJV less in my study.
Thanks! :thumbs:
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