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Who did the king see?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by stilllearning, Jul 27, 2011.

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  1. beameup

    beameup Member

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    The Aramaic is "bar 'elahh" or son of God which is equivalent to the Hebrew "bene ha 'Elohim" .
    Always used of angels in the Old Testament. My guess is that it was Michael the Archangel.
     
    #21 beameup, Jul 28, 2011
  2. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Not that a word count is actually a determining factor --but the American Standard Version of 1901 is supposed to be the most literal translation outside of an interlinear.

    (Aside from the times that the KJV departs from the TR?)
     
    #22 Rippon, Jul 28, 2011
  3. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Why did you reference other versions as "other translations"? What do you mean by that?

    Do you understand that the KJV can really throw folks off?
     
    #23 Rippon, Jul 28, 2011
  4. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Aren't both 1977 NASV/1995 NASB considered morre literal/accurate than KJV also?
     
    #24 JesusFan, Jul 28, 2011
  5. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    Yea, it was throwing people off, for 270 years, before W&H showed up to save the day!
     
    #25 stilllearning, Jul 28, 2011
  6. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    just curious, wonder how the Church taught about God for 1600 years prior to ole KJV?
     
    #26 JesusFan, Jul 28, 2011
  7. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    What do you mean? No one has ever said that the KJB was the first!
     
    #27 stilllearning, Jul 28, 2011
  8. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Was any English translation before the KJV's as good as the KJVs?
     
    #28 Rippon, Jul 28, 2011
  9. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    As I have said many times....THEY ALL WERE!
     
    #29 stilllearning, Jul 28, 2011
  10. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Was there any word of God before KJV?
     
    #30 JesusFan, Jul 28, 2011
  11. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    And of course you and I have not read all the English versions before the 1611 came about.

    Are any modern versions as good or better than those English versions (you haven't read) which came out before the 17th century?
     
    #31 Rippon, Jul 28, 2011
  12. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    No...and the OP proves it!
     
    #32 stilllearning, Jul 28, 2011
  13. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Just curious, why KJV and notthe Vulgate, as same reasons for KJV applies to it!

    Also, can any language version Bible other than English KJV be word of God today?
     
    #33 JesusFan, Jul 28, 2011
  14. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    Of course. Stop being silly.
     
    #34 stilllearning, Jul 28, 2011
  15. beameup

    beameup Member

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    I know that Wescott & Hort can really "throw folks off"
     
    #35 beameup, Jul 28, 2011
  16. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    WHAT modern Bible version uses their Greek text exclusively though?
     
    #36 JesusFan, Jul 28, 2011
  17. beameup

    beameup Member

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    A little leaven [yeast] leavens the whole lump [of dough] - Gal 5:9, 1 Cor. 5:6

    There are only a couple dozen English words in the KJV
    that are not used anywhere on the planet today.
    The KJV is 400 years old and is still a "Modern Translation".
    2 Timothy 2:15

    -------------------------------------------------------

    For those who love Wescott & Hort so much, why don't
    you use the "modern" Revised Version?
     
    #37 beameup, Jul 28, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 28, 2011
  18. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Now,after giving all the proof necessary for a rationally-minded person to say they were wrong --will you now admit that for the passage to be rendered "a son of the gods" is not an attack upon the Faith?
     
    #38 Rippon, Jul 28, 2011
  19. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    Hi Rippon

    You asked..........
    What an interesting question:
    Are you saying that I have given proof?
    and...who are you saying is wrong?
    --------------------------------------------------
    You continued..........
    Well my statement, was actually a question(even though I forgot the “?”):
    But....I am still leaning toward the belief, that changing “the Son of God” to “a son of the gods", is an attack.

    For hundreds of years, God’s people read these words in Daniel 3:25, and found strength in the fact that Christ was there to help them!

    But by simply changing a few words, the MV’s did away with that!
     
    #39 stilllearning, Jul 28, 2011
  20. beameup

    beameup Member

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    "The Church" was the Catholic church and they didn't allow ordinary Christians to read scripture.
    The version used by "the Church" was the Vulgate which was a Latin translation of a Greek translation.
    The Early Church used the Septuagint which was a Greek translation of the Hebrew.
     
    #40 beameup, Jul 28, 2011
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