beameup
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The Aramaic is "bar 'elahh" or son of God which is equivalent to the Hebrew "bene ha 'Elohim" .
Always used of angels in the Old Testament. My guess is that it was Michael the Archangel.
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Who did the king see?
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The Aramaic is "bar 'elahh" or son of God which is equivalent to the Hebrew "bene ha 'Elohim" .
Always used of angels in the Old Testament. My guess is that it was Michael the Archangel.
Not that a word count is actually a determining factor --but the American Standard Version of 1901 is supposed to be the most literal translation outside of an interlinear.
(Aside from the times that the KJV departs from the TR?)
Why did you reference other versions as "other translations"? What do you mean by that?
Do you understand that the KJV can really throw folks off?
Aren't both 1977 NASV/1995 NASB considered morre literal/accurate than KJV also?
stilllearning
Active Member
Yea, it was throwing people off, for 270 years, before W&H showed up to save the day!
just curious, wonder how the Church taught about God for 1600 years prior to ole KJV?
stilllearning
Active Member
What do you mean? No one has ever said that the KJB was the first!
Was any English translation before the KJV's as good as the KJVs?
stilllearning
Active Member
As I have said many times....THEY ALL WERE!
Was there any word of God before KJV?
And of course you and I have not read all the English versions before the 1611 came about.
Are any modern versions as good or better than those English versions (you haven't read) which came out before the 17th century?
stilllearning
Active Member
No...and the OP proves it!
Just curious, why KJV and notthe Vulgate, as same reasons for KJV applies to it!
Also, can any language version Bible other than English KJV be word of God today?
stilllearning
Active Member
Of course. Stop being silly.
beameup
Member
WHAT modern Bible version uses their Greek text exclusively though?
beameup
Member
A little leaven [yeast] leavens the whole lump [of dough] - Gal 5:9, 1 Cor. 5:6
There are only a couple dozen English words in the KJV
that are not used anywhere on the planet today.
The KJV is 400 years old and is still a "Modern Translation".
2 Timothy 2:15
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For those who love Wescott & Hort so much, why don't
you use the "modern" Revised Version?
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Now,after giving all the proof necessary for a rationally-minded person to say they were wrong --will you now admit that for the passage to be rendered "a son of the gods" is not an attack upon the Faith?
stilllearning
Active Member
Hi Rippon
You asked..........
Are you saying that I have given proof?
and...who are you saying is wrong?
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You continued..........
Well my statement, was actually a question(even though I forgot the “?”):
But....I am still leaning toward the belief, that changing “the Son of God” to “a son of the gods", is an attack.
For hundreds of years, God’s people read these words in Daniel 3:25, and found strength in the fact that Christ was there to help them!
But by simply changing a few words, the MV’s did away with that!
You asked..........
What an interesting question:
Are you saying that I have given proof?
and...who are you saying is wrong?
--------------------------------------------------
You continued..........
Well my statement, was actually a question(even though I forgot the “?”):
But....I am still leaning toward the belief, that changing “the Son of God” to “a son of the gods", is an attack.
For hundreds of years, God’s people read these words in Daniel 3:25, and found strength in the fact that Christ was there to help them!
But by simply changing a few words, the MV’s did away with that!
beameup
Member
"The Church" was the Catholic church and they didn't allow ordinary Christians to read scripture.
The version used by "the Church" was the Vulgate which was a Latin translation of a Greek translation.
The Early Church used the Septuagint which was a Greek translation of the Hebrew.
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