Featured Why are gay activists winning?

You still did not produce any ancient document that justifies translating either the Greek malakos or arsenokoites by how we understand the modern term "homosexual" or "homosexuality". I find it odd that for some reason, everyone speaks of homosexuals as if they are always assuming a male or female role. [snipped]

 

If what you say is true, you can produce and quote the ancient text to prove the ESV & NIV2011 are correct. I quoted 2 texts earlier and if you have what you claim, do likewise:

From the Sibylline Oracle 2.70-77.10 -
"(Never accept in your hand a gift which derives from unjust deeds.)

Do not steal seeds. Whoever takes for himself is accursed (to generations of generations, to the scattering of life.

Do not arsenokoitein, do not betray information, do not murder.) Give one who has labored his wage. Do not oppress a poor man. Take heed of your speech. Keep a secret matter in your heart. (Make provision for orphans and widows and those in need.)

Do not be willing to act unjustly, and therefore do not give leave to one who is acting unjustly."

From the Acts of John -
"You who delight in gold and ivory and jewels, do you see your loved (possessions) when night comes on? And you who give way to soft clothing, and then depart from life, will these things be useful in the place where you are going? And let the murderer know that the punishment he has earned awaits him in double measure after he leaves this (world). So also the poisoner, sorcerer, robber, swindler, and arsenokoités, the thief and all of this band. ...So, men of Ephesus, change your ways; for you know this also, that kings, rulers, tyrants, boasters, and warmongers shall go naked from this world and come to eternal misery and torment (section 36; Hennecke-Schneemelcher)."

The example that male and bed is used in the LXX of Lev. 18:22; 20:13 has nothing to do with proving the ESV and NIV2011 are correct. Two words are used in an LXX text and Paul used the same two words and made a compound of them, so what? For centuries the church was able to see malakos is "effeminate" and arsenokoites is "sodomite" as far as we can put into one word. We know "sodomite" is not "homosexual", so how or what did the evangelical translators find in the ancient record to alert us that the church did not really understand that section of 1 Cor. 6:9 until recently? I will step aside and wait to see if anyone produces the ancient text that uses either malakos or arsenokoites in the meaning of "homosexuality" as used in this day. The 'world' sees evangelicals making this same empty reasoning about the translation and they correctly challenge it and reject it. So, I too will await the evidence from historical writings. It is clear it is a sex sin between males, but the translation in the ESV seems to have no foundation that I can find and so far no one has produced it.

 

In clear words, you cannot produce it either! :laugh:

 

I have the BDAG with the same reference you give:

ἀρσενοκοίτης, ου, ὁ (ἄρσην ‘male’ + κοίτη ‘bed’; Bardesanes 719 fgm. 3b 10, 25 p. 653 Jac. [in Eus., PE 6, 10, 25]; Anth. Pal. 9, 686, 5 and Cat. Cod. Astr. VIII/4 p. 196, 6 and 8 have the sp. ἀρρενοκοίτης; Theoph. Ant. 1, 2 [p. 60, 27]; in a vice list—ἀρσενοκοιτεῖν SibOr 2, 73; AcJ 36 [Aa II/1, 169]; cp. the association of ἄρσην and κοίτη Lev 20:13, s. Soph. Lex.: ἀ.= ὁ μετὰ ἄρσενος κοιμώμενος κοίτην γυναικείαν=‘one who has intercourse w. a man as w. a woman’; cp. the formation of μητροκοίτης [μήτηρ + κοίτη] ‘one who has intercourse w. his mother’ Hipponax 15, 2 Diehl3 [=Degani 20, 2]) a male who engages in sexual activity w. a pers. of his own sex, pederast 1 Cor 6:9 (on the impropriety of RSV’s ‘homosexuals’ [altered to ‘sodomites’ NRSV] s. WPetersen, VigChr 40, ’86, 187–91; cp. DWright, ibid. 41, ’87, 396–98; REB’s rendering of μαλακοὶ οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται w. the single term ‘sexual pervert’ is lexically unacceptable), of one who assumes the dominant role in same-sex activity, opp. μαλακός (difft. DMartin, in Biblical Ethics and Homosexuality, ed. RBrawley, ’96, 117–36); 1 Ti 1:10; Pol 5:3. Cp. Ro 1:27. Romans forbade pederasty w. free boys in the Lex Scantinia, pre-Cicero (JBremmer, Arethusa 13, ’80, 288 and notes); Paul’s strictures against same-sex activity cannot be satisfactorily explained on the basis of alleged temple prostitution (on its rarity, but w. some evidence concerning women used for sacred prostitution at Corinth s. LWoodbury, TAPA 108, ’78, 290f, esp. note 18 [lit.]), or limited to contract w. boys for homoerotic service (s. Wright, VigChr 38, ’84, 125–53). For condemnation of the practice in the Euphrates region s. the ref. to Bardesanes above.—RBurton, The Book of the Thousand Nights and a Night, 1934, vol. 6, 3748–82, lit. reff. and anthropological data relating to a variety of Mediterranean cultures; DBailey, Homosexuality and the Western Christian Tradition, ’55; KDover, Greek Homosexuality ’78; RScroggs, The NT and Homosexuality ’83; JBoswell, Christianity, Social Tolerance, and Homosexuality ’80; JBremmer, Greek Pederasty, in JBremmer, ed. From Sappho to de Sade2 ’91, 1–14; ECantarella, Bisexuality in the Ancient World ’92.—Pauly-W. 8, 1333f; 1459–68. DELG s.v. ἄρσην. M-M.

The materials are listed. So, why has no evangelical who supports and understands the evidence for the ESV & NIV2011, posted the actual writings from the past? Show us. The gay activists and their theologians have posted two showing the word in history and it surely is not about what we call homosexuality in this day. Why has no evangelical done it? I am not asking you to do it yourself, but certainly you seem knowledgeable and can give a link to a site that gives the record that the BDAG and L&N reference.