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Featured Why Atheists cannot account for Objective Moral Truths

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by HeirofSalvation, Aug 12, 2023.

  1. HeirofSalvation

    HeirofSalvation Well-Known Member
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    All beliefs/ arguments/ assumptions do end up at an assumed rote fact........somewhere......at some point.
    There is ultimately a "given". And we all have to appeal to it as an ultimate root explanation. All of us, Christian, Hindu, atheist, et.al. we all start somewhere. This is hardly an intellectual crime, we simply have to assume something as an ab initio assumption.

    Christians obviously appeal to God.
    Since God is a person (or three persons in one), he can grant purpose, design and meaning to something. A Muslim could assume that as well for example. Also Muslims can account for objective moral truths.
    I do not believe atheists can appeal to any such thing.

    But, I don't believe that modern atheists put man in the place of God.
    They put "Mother-Nature" in the place of God.

    (Yes, we've now become so brilliant and evolved that we're back to Gaia worship)...Yay for scientific progress. :Cautious

    "Nature" does these things.
    However...while they personify "nature" and "her" purposes in their verbiage....deep down, they understand/ believe that "nature" (in all her motherly "her-ness") is an un-guided and unintelligent random process with no purpose.

    Here, I think they are confused. They FEEL that "nature" (gaia) has a purpose...but, they never really THINK it through, because they also simultaneously don't actually believe it/she does....

    They think it's an unguided process, the origin of which is simply unknown....but, "she" also "designs" things....or they kinda' feel like (she?) does. Atheists tend to be quite primitive in their thinking.

    Contra our Calvinist brethren...Western Society is not suffering from an influx/reintroduction of Humanism (were to God that that was the real problem)....but rather Pantheism.
     
    #81 HeirofSalvation, Aug 23, 2023
    Last edited: Aug 23, 2023
  2. Arthur King

    Arthur King Active Member

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    I am saying instead that the Universal thriving of human beings is not a uniform and universal desire of all persons.


    But if it were, that would constitute an objective moral standard, right? The hypothetical is all I need to prove my argument. You argument is "Without God, objective moral values do not exist." So if I show that objective moral values merely could exist based on human nature alone, that is enough to prove my argument.

    But the other criticism I would say of this statement is again that it seems to deny a universal human nature - that is, deny that there is a definition for "human being."

    Some would rather it not be case, and would be happier and more fulfilled if humans did not universally thrive.

    "Some would rather it not be the case" because they are objectively wrong about their own human nature.

    Again, my argument is sufficient to say "IF there is a universal bedrock desire within human nature for life and happiness, that constitutes an objective moral standard."

    There are Psychopaths in the Universe. They do not regard universal human thriving or happiness to be something which they consider morally desirable per se. There are some who are sadistic to an extreme and find no joy in human happiness.

    But that isn't even the biblical worldview, let alone the atheist one. The biblical worldview is that all humans are designed to find their ultimate happiness in God. Sin is idolatry - that is - the replacement of God with something that is not God within the human heart.

    So to say that there are some people who actually find happiness in being sadistic is to forsake the biblical worldview entirely. The biblical view is that sadists are trying to satisfy their desire for God and his ways with acts of sadism.

    As God defines sin in Jeremiah 2:13 - "My people have committed 2 evils, they have forsaken Me, the fountain of living waters, to build broken cisterns that can hold no water." What do we truly desire? God, the fountain of living waters. What have we tried to replace Him with? Broken cisterns that can hold no water. What happens to people who do that? They die of thirst - due to their own actions. It is not that we actually build another working fountain that can actually give us water, and so God is mad and then kills us for it. No - the death comes from our own act of forsaking God.

    I am saying you helping yourself to that universal truth ab initio (as a Christian you can do that)...but, you want to permit the atheist to do the same.
    The atheist has no grounds for helping themselves to that.

    I agree that the atheist has no good explanation for where the universe or universal human nature comes from. But that is a different argument. What we are allowing is that the atheist acknowledges the universe exists and has order, and that there is a universal human nature. My argument is that those two things that the atheist believes in are sufficient grounds for objective moral facts.

    If you are going to take a step back and say "well, the atheist cant explain where the universe came from in the first place" then I am completely in agreement with you.

    The question is whether morality is located in God's creation or in His commands. Genesis 1 says that goodness is invested in the created order.

    Maybe, but who says all humans SHOULD be happy?

    Universal human nature does.

    But again, the way you are asking the question assumes the premise you need to prove. That is like saying "who says E=mc2?" It is not a matter of "who says" but "what is."

    If there is an objective order of human behavior that produces life an happiness for all, then that is sufficient to establish an objective moral standard. Again, morality means objective purpose, and a universal human nature absolutely can have an objective purpose - a universal bedrock desire that is objectively X and not Y.

    and his creation is a reflection of his nature....

    I win. Thanks!

    Angels...

    God certainly desires all angels to be happy with Him forever. He has not provided redemption for them as He has done with humans, so far as we know, although we will be judging angels, so who knows what kind of judgment our perfected selves will bring them under and what faculties of mercy we will be able to afford them.

    But not all angels accepted God's design for them. Some rebelled and became demons.

    But the point is that even on Christianity, you cannot separate morality from human life and happiness.

    God's purpose then, for mankind, could have been wholly different (as it is with angels) and it would not be "wrong" of God to design them/us that way.

    But then the question arises of whether we would even be human beings at all, if we were designed/purposed a different way. I would argue at that point we wouldn't be humans.

    "Divine Purpose and Design" theory.

    That's Natural Law.

    They are not moral facts...

    A moral fact is simply a "purpose fact." A fact about a thing's purpose. A purpose is a type of desire, and it is a type of desire that can be found in a universal human nature.

    I enjoy the dialogue as well.
     
  3. RighteousnessTemperance&

    RighteousnessTemperance& Well-Known Member

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