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Because to them the Word of God can be tampered with if it suits their needs.Originally posted by SixKids:
Why did the RC Church add book at trent if the Canon is closed back 380 something?
Your history is Catholic revisionism at its best, and is full of inaccuracies as far as the canonization is concerned.Originally posted by Born Again Catholic:
Dhk
I put the history out there the protestant history is a fairy tale,
They probably would be regarded as an interesting novelty.I wonder what would happen if there were new parchments, scrolls, whatever found that appeared to be true and accurate and meant to be part of scripture, and couldn't be disproven as such. Would it be added to the bible, by anyone, if this happened in our times?
Here is your first fallacy. The Jews were united as to what the canon of the Old Testament was. In fact they knew what it was as early as 400 B.C. To deny that they didn't would be to put the very integrity of Christ in question, as he refers to the whole of the canon of the Old Testament in Luke 24:44. They did not have to wait until 90 A.D. for a council to decide what the canon was. That is just a pipe dream.Originally posted by Born Again Catholic:
Brief Scripture History
1st Century
1st century Jews were not united as to what constituted the canon of Scripture. Many different canons were in use by the Jews in the 1st century, including the OT canon used by Christians, which included a certain seven books with many Messianic prophecies which were used to evangelize to Jews along with the Christian Gospels.
In order to determine which books belong in scripture and to stop the spread of Christianity several rabbi’s met in Javneh in A.D. 90. They declared the deuterocanonicals (known as the apocrypha to protestants) to be unfit for scripture they also declared the Gospels as unfit to be considered scripture. In fact by the criteria they set all books of the Christian New Testament would be considered unfit to be scripture.
Unaffected? Surely you jest? Alexander the Great (a Greek) had conquered the known world in his time, and had imposed upon the world the Greek language. It was universal--even in Egypt. The Roman empire followed Alexander's. That was during the time of Christ. They gave to the world a system of world wide roads or transportation routes. One of the greatest centers of Christian civilizations centered in Alexandria in Africa. It was in Africa that the Montanists prospered. It was in Africa that Tertullian and Origen, and other of the church fathers lived.Interesting side note is that the African Jews whose ancestors at the time were unaffected by Christianity did not participate in this Council, they still use an Old Testament Canon that is identical to the Catholic Church, 2,000 years later.
Now you are into the time frame when the Catholic Church had its true beginnings--the time of Constantine. The Catholic Church can declare anything it wants. It can declare that blue is green and white is black, but that doesn't make it so. The fact remains that both O.T. and N.T. canons were determined long before this. The apostles themselves knew which books were Scripture and which were not, and passed this knowledge on to the early believers, so that by the end of the first century the early church knew what the canon of Scripture was. The early believers had the Word of God along. They had no need of the Catholic Church to determine anything.4th Century
Catholic Church Affirms the OT Cannon and determines NT Canon
This was done by Pope Damasus and the Synod of Rome (382) and the local Councils of Hippo (393) and Carthage (397), this canon was alss contained in St. Jerome's Latin Vulgate translation (420),
Foolishness. The Protestants never accepted any of the Apocryphal books in the first place. This is only your wishful thinking revisionist history.11 Century
1052 – Orthodox Church schisms from the Catholic Church (they keep the seven books Protestants would eventually discard)
More foolishness. Some pre-reformation may have contained the Apocrypha for reading purposes only. Hey, my Bible has a Bible dictionary and a concordance in it. Does that make the dictionary and the concordance part of the canon of the Bible. Of course not! Neither did the inclusion of the Apocrypha make it part of the canon of their Bibles. It was put their for reading purposes only. Thus in most cases it was put in between the testaments, and not in chronological or historical order.15/16 century
Protestants edit the Bible creating a brand new Christian canon by removing seven books from the OT (Check the museums for pre-reformation Bibles the aren’t the protestant version)
I don't have a clue who you are talking about. Bible believing Christians don't try to remove any books of the canon of Scripture. Some unbelieving liberals may try and do so, but then they don't believe the Bible in the first place.Some protestants also try to remove certain NT books such as James, Jude, Hebrews, and the Apocalypse of St. John, these changes don’t catch on but a few of these modified Bibles are still in existence.
The Catholic Church is made up of a bunch of sinful men who cannot do any infallible thing. "For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God (Rom.3:23). That includes all in the RCC. It doesn't matter what you reaffirm. The Canon of Scripture was completed in the first century no matter what the Catholic Church did. God didn't need the Catholic Church to do anything, and wouldn't, and didn't use such a sinful organization as that. He used Bible-believing Christians to preserve His word throughout the centuries, not the RCC that was content on burning his Word, as they did with William Tyndale.1570
The Catholic Church infallibly reaffirms the Christian Canon by the Ecumenical Council of Trent (1570) to combat protestant modifications to the Bible.
You have defeated your own arguments. If these were the criteria set up by Jamnia, then they obviously knew what criteria the Jews used. If the books were written before 400 B.C., it would be impossible for the Apocrypha to be included in the O.T., as Catholics affirm, since it was written between 210 B.C. and 70 A.D. The books are totally spurious. They were not even written in Hebrew originally.Originally posted by Born Again Catholic:
DHK
You unwittingly are quoting the very criteria the council of Jamnia set up to determine what is scripture (ie 400bc the canon was set) The council of Jamnia established 4 criteria that all books had to meet in order to be considered scripture.
1. The books had to conform to the Pentateuch (the first 5 books).
2. The books had to be written in Hebrew.
3. The books had to be written in Palestine.
4. The books had to be written before 400 B.C..
These criteria eliminated the deuteros's as well as the Gospels. Maybe if I quote Jewish sources it will help you. Unless you believe they are part of this Catholic conspiracy to add books to the Bible.