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Why no commitment?

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annsni

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However it does not include the vulgar language of the KJV in 2 Kings 18:27, Is 36:12,1Sam 25:22, 1Sam 25:34,1Kin 14:10,1Kin 16:11,1Kings 21:21, 2Kings 9:8.

Thus we see the difference in language. "Vulgar" in 1611 means something quite different than it does in 2010, doesn't it??
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
That men have been entrusted with God's word is shown many times in scripture.

Rom 3:2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.

2 Cor 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

1 Tim 1:11 According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.


1 Tim 6:20 O Timothy, keep that which is committed to thy trust, avoiding profane and vain babblings, and oppositions of science falsely so called:

Titus 1:3 But hath in due times manifested his word through preaching, which is committed unto me according to the commandment of God our Saviour;

God has promised to preserve his Word, but he does so through faithful men.

None of those verses mention the KJV or any other translation. You still have no proof for committing to ONE VERSION and one version only. As a matter of fact, with the possible exception of Romans 3, none of those verses are referring specifically to the Bible.
 
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robycop3

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My, that's a bold statement. You have proof of that?


Terp!

"Passover" insteada "Easter" in Acts 12:4.

"The love of money is A root of ALL SORTS of evil" in 1 Tim. 6:10.

"Through our Lord Jesus Christ" in Jude 25 for starters...
 

gb93433

Active Member
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Thus we see the difference in language. "Vulgar" in 1611 means something quite different than it does in 2010, doesn't it??
That is the reason why the KJV 1611 is no longer an accurate translation by the meanings those same words have today when compared to then.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
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Winman: Let me explain how I came to be KJB only. I wasn't influenced by anyone but the scriptures themselves. When I was young and first saved, I was struck by Matthew 4:4

Matt 4:4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

And those words do NOT include the phrase "Thou shalt be KJVO".

When I saw that word "every" it really stuck with me, and I thought on this verse for days. If God is good and true, and he expects us to live by "every" word he speaks, then it only seemed reasonable to me for God to provide every word.

Who here sez He HASN'T?

He mighta said to Matthew, "Saul has a slow gray donkey." He mighta said to Luke, "Saul has a gray slow donkey." He mighta said to Mark, "Saul's donkey is slow & gray." He mighta said to John, "Saul's donkey is gray & slow." He mighta said to another, "Do you know Saul, who lives in that stone house? He has a donkey that's so slow it takes an hour to cross the street. That donkey is as gray as any mouse I've ever seen."

Differing setsa words; same MESSAGE. Who sez GOD can't communicate with man ANY WAY HE CHOOSES? Who are YOU to pick-n-choose what's God's word & what isn't?


At that time I had a KJB and an RSV and it was very easy for me to see they were very different. I knew they both could not be correct. So I prayed and did some study. I got many good books on Bible versions. When I was done, I was convinced the KJB was the pure Word in English.

Well, it's apparent ya didn't study too well nor too deeply. At least ya admit the REAL SOURCE of your KJVO junk...OTHER MEN! You believed the hooey in those boox ya got insteada checking out its VERACITY for yourself.

Now, that does not prove I am correct, although I sincerely believe myself to be so.

Newp! It only proves you've been DECEIVED.



And I have always asked, if the KJB is not the pure Word of God in English, then which version is?

For the zillionth time, we Freedom Readers have always answered, "EVERY VALID VERSION! " You simply CANNOT prove any differently!

And that is it, you won't find anybody who stands up for a single MV. I have never found one person who says the NIV is the one and only pure Word of God in English, or the ESV, or NASB or any other MV.

Again, that's cuz we Freedom Readers KNOW BETTER!

All MVs try to insist that all versions are the pure Word of God which is impossible. I am amazed that a person can fool themselves into believeing this obvious false argument. It is impossible.

Actually, we Freedom Readers are amazed that you believe something as obviously-FALSE as the MAN-MADE KJVO doctrine.

Can ya PROVE it's impossible for more than one translation to be God's word? Betcha CAN'T! "With GOD, all things are possible."


How a person can convince themselves that two versions that are different in thousands of words, dozens of verses and complete passages are both the pure and uncorrupted Word of God is beyond me.

Same way 1900 years of mankind has been convinced that the four very-different "Gospels", differing greatly in their narrations of the same events, are all Scripture.


I cannot allow myself to believe a false argument like this.

Why not? You believe the obviously-false KJVO argument.

It appears to me that your whole "committment" thingie is nothing more than a "doggie-door" attempt to promote KJVO. Sorry, Captain; it remains as FALSE as it was before ya started. Most of us here know the FACTS about KJVO, that it's simply FALSE, that it's entirely MAN-MADE, NOT SUPPORTED by the first quark of SCRIPTURE, with its current edition derived from a CULT OFFICIAL'S book, as were prolly almost all the boox you've read about Bible versions.
 

jaigner

Active Member
That's ridiculous, the very men who translated the King James were some of the greatest scholars ever assembled. And there are hundreds of very scholarly Christians who defend the KJB. Your statement is pure nonsense. There are many dozens of Christian colleges that are KJB only.
.

Which colleges? Are the accredited? Do their professors publish in leading evangelical scholarly journals?
 
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