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Why translators have failed

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Van, Aug 16, 2011.

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  1. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Please explain what you mean here. In your first sentence, did you mean "context" instead of "content"? You seem in this paragraph to be saying both that context determines meaning and that it does not.
    Where in the world do you get that the Greek word anothen does not mean "again"? All of my lexicons give "again" as a possible meaning. Even Thayer's does, so look back at the Blue Letter Bible, look at Thayer's, and learn.
    Just because the Greek has another word meaning "again" doesn't mean that anothen can't mean "again" with a different nuance. Greek has synonyms too, you know. If John had meant the normal meaning of "again: he would have used palin, but he wanted the ambiguity and word play of a dual meaning that anothen gave him.
     
  2. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Where are you getting this? I just checked, and rhma occurs 67 times in the TR NT. The KJV translates it with just five words (discounting plurals): word, saying, manner, nothing (with pan for "no-") and thing. And actually, it could be argued that "nothing" and "thing" are the same rendering.

    So really the KJV (and I suspect other versions) exceeds your expectations, having only 5, or arguably 4 different renderings for rhma. You wanted it down to 6.

    Strike one!
     
  3. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Reply to John of Japan

    I agree with this post and this post agrees with what I posted.
     
  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Hi John of Japan, if a word has a range of meanings, it means "a" usually, but can also mean "b" or "c", then we must look at the context to determine which of its meanings was apparently intended. However, like you said in post #21, I do not think translators should come up with another meaning, lets call it "d" based on what they think the idea of the usage is, and translate its meaning as "d" i.e. a whole new meaning created by the context. That is simply a rewrite altering the meaning of the word used.

    I believe the "primary" meaning of the word is not again, as in repeating the "same" action, but means an action with a difference. It is a nuance. I had read and knew what NAS lexicon said:

    Definition

    1. from above, from a higher place
    1. of things which come from heaven or God
    2. from the first, from the beginning, from the very first
    3. anew, over again

    And my post matched this precisely.

    "Just because the Greek has another word meaning "again" doesn't mean that anothen can't mean "again" with a different nuance." John of Japan, that is exactly what I said!!

    "but he wanted the ambiguity and word play of a dual meaning that anothen gave him." And this is the exact opposite of what I believe. Born anew rather than born again, is the idea of John 3:3, and 3:7.
     
  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    "Strike one" Give me a break, the NIV translates Rhema into more than 14 different words.
    And did you not see that I selected synonyms that did not overlap the words used to translate logos, I illustrated how some would be used for logos and others for rhema so the same English word would not, to the degree possible, be used for two different Greek words. I used utter, utterance for rhema, and then said to change those verses where logos is translated as utterance, to message or statement or the like.

    Here is the NAS lexicon saying Rhema was translated into about 10 different words, not five:
    NAS Word Usage - Total: 67
    charge 1, discourse 1, fact 2, matters 1, message 2, nothing* 1, remark 1, say 1, say say 1, saying 1, sayings 3, statement 6, thing 2, things 4, word 18, words 22

    Let me close, by saying thanks for actually addressing the topic. Hopefully we both have grown in our understanding of our respective views. Van
     
    #25 Van, Aug 17, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 17, 2011
  6. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    just curious, did you ever buy and use the BDAG? Think thats what the third edition of the baur lexicon now called...

    before I bought it when it came out, read some reviews by Evangelicals who were not thrilled with fact went heavily into "inclusive" language in new edition!
     
  7. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Now lets see if it is rude to derail a thread. :)
     
  8. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    isn't it also a truth that based upon the doctrine of inspiration that in the Ultimate sense it was the Holy spirit Himself who placed the exact verbage God wanted to be recorded down into sacred text?

    that God determined just what was placed in there, word usuage, graamer, syntex, construction etc!
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Now you are cooking, Jesusfan! If we assume that God did not choose His words willy nilly, but chose the ones that would convey His message with clarity, then translators should endeavor to preserve that clarity.

    So what is wrong with the KJV which translates "rhema" using only about 4 words? Because they are among the same words used to translate logos. Thus, whatever nuance rhema brought to the table in Greek is mostly obliterated by the KJV because it is almost just as if the HS used logos everywhere.

    Here are the logos words in the KJV: AV — word 218, saying 50, account 8, speech 8, Word (Christ) 7, thing 5, not tr 2, misc 32

    And here are the rhema words in the KJV: AV — word 56, saying 9, thing 3, no thing + 3756 1, not tr 1

    Note that in 66 cases out of possible 67, the KJV draws absolutely no distinction from logos.

    To quote a famous movie line, "What we have here is a failure to communicate."
     
    #29 Van, Aug 17, 2011
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  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    What Van wrote in post #12:

    "I do not agree with the idea of determining a word meaning my content. Words have meanings, and so the author chose that word to convey that meaning. Now when a word has more than one meaning, then content must be used to discern which of the accepted meanings appears to fit best. So, using your illustration of "well" we agree that several English words might be chosen to translate a Greek word with the range of meanings you illustrated with "well." "

    What Van was trying to write in post #12:

    I do not agree with the idea of determining the meaning of a word by context alone. Words have core meanings, or a range of meanings. So the author chose that word to convey that meaning. Now when a word has more than one meaning, then context must be used to discern which of the accepted meanings appears to fit best. So, using your illustration of "well" we agree that several English words might be chosen to translate a Greek word based on using one of the existing meanings as best fits the context. Translators should not invent a new meaning for a word, that is just a rewrite of the text to suit the translator.
     
  11. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    That is true but the fact that is missing is that language changes. The meanings of words change, grammar usages change, and syntax changes. If not then we wouldn't need translators, nor revisions of translations.
     
  12. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    True!

    based upon the fact that we know SO MUCH more about all that you described since the time of the originals just in past say 50-100 years, wouldn;t modern versions by default have higher accuracy rate regardless of texts used as bias of the translation?

    That Modern versions should be inheritelt more accurant than KJV and other older versions?
     
  13. sag38

    sag38 Active Member

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    Since Van is such an expert on translation why does he not produce the Van translation of the Bible to show all the failed translators how it really should be done?
     
  14. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    might been written in sacred "Tongue of the Holy Spirit" language and need proper interpretation of it!
     
  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    One of the nifty stories of my youth concerned a King's New Clothes. He could not see them but all the experts who surrounded him said he looked marvelous. One day, when out among the peasants, a child said, but the King has no clothes.

    So all these posts attempting to "put me in my place" rather than actually addressing the problem with modern translations, strike me as being from folks with a vested interest in keeping the problem a secret. And so it goes.

    My position is that most Greek words are translated into far too many English words unnecessarily. Rhema is translated into about 20 different English words (counting alternate endings such as plurals), when six or so would seem to do the trick.

    Until we face our problems we will not grow in Christ. God Bless.
     
    #35 Van, Aug 17, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 17, 2011
  16. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    There are no "secrets" here, contrary to your misguided opinions.

    And only God or you can "put you in your place". Trust me when I say this- it is better if you do it yourself because when He does it it generally hurts.
     
  17. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    I did not mean to suggest that the context is the sole method of determining the meaning of a word. That would be ridiculous. Context is, however, the most important. I quote from Berkhoff, Principles of Biblical Interpretation, Page 74.
    With further reference to anothen, John 3 is not the only place in the N.T. where it appears to mean 'again.' Have a look at Galatians 4:9. Whilst 'anew' is a fair translation in John 3:3 (though no better than 'again' IMO), I don't think it works in Gal 4:9.

    Biblical translation and exegesis are jolly difficult to do well.

    Steve
     
  18. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    Since Greek to English translation is, apparently, so simple....I'd love to hear a recommendation by the OP about how we are to "easily" translate a second aorist passive participle. Like the one in Hebrews 6:4, φωτισθέντας particularly when used in apposition to an aorist middle participle, γευσαμένους.

    Since this is an easy task I'm fascinated to hear how easily they should be understood.
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Hi Martin, I see that most translations render the construction "anothem palin" as "over again." The point is palin which is always translated again is the primary adverb. Since one of the lexicon meanings is "over again" the construction over again again seems to emphase it as in "all over again."

    There is no good reason to defend obliterating the actual underlying Greek. Born anew would be the best translation of John 3:3, and "all over again" works for Galatians 4:9.
     
  20. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Apparently you don't even know what you said. What you actually said verbatim was, "Now lets consider John 3:3 and the accepted translation 'born again.' The Greek word does not mean again so it is a mistranslation in my opinion."

    So, no possibility that we are born "from above"?
     
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