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Why was the KJV Bible given to Anglo Saxons Only?

Marcia

Active Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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Asking me if it was a little birdie is pretty condescending, Michelle. I would think someone like you who is always quoting the Bible would be more sisterly.
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And I don't think it is very christlike, and is very condescending for many here to be calling what I believe cultic, sectic, heresy, myth, gnostic, cancerous etc. I also don't see that calling other christians trolls, rabid, disciples of Riplinger, venomous, sister and sweetheart (ungenuinely), etc. to be very christlike. Please explain to me how my question to you was in the family of this? Yet, you, as my sister in Christ, never speak against this sort of thing, but make false accusation toward me for my above question?
Michelle, I never called you these names. Your remark about the little birdie as a response to a serious question I had wasa condescending.


Posted by Marcia:

Are you saying that they spoke English in Israel? They spoke Hebrew and Aramaic. The manuscripts that we do have and that were used for the earliest Bibles were mostly Hebrew for the OT and Greek for the NT.

I really want to know: are you saying that Jesus spoke King James English and the writers of the NT wrote down his words in King James English? Help me understand.
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Michelle responded:
Where did I say such a thing? NO, what I have been saying and will continue to say and believe, until my last dying breath, or until my Lord Jesus Christ comes to take us home is: what Jesus spoke, in the Old and New testament is what we have today in our English language perfectly. Same words, same meaning. Exactly how God desired for us to have.
Okay, then you are saying that Jesus spoke 17th century English, because you say that the same words in "our English language" are the words Jesus spoke and are what is in the OT. Isn't this what you are saying??


Marcia posted:
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Also, you did not answer my question. Do you believe that people in other countries must study English in order to read God's word? That is not a hard question; please answer.
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Michelle replied:
I don't focus my attention concerning this issue, with things that have nothing to do with the issue here at hand, and that is God's word of truth in our own language. I by faith, believe that the faithful in other countries are given the whole counsel of God. Where they find it, the Lord will show them, to wherever it is. Only the Lord knows this question, and those who are living in other countries who are the faithful know this. And I HAVE ANSWERED THIS BEFORE. So please stop accusing me, as many here have a bad habit of doing, that I do not answer your questions. I answer most questions. There are some questions however, not worthy of answering, as they are questions of trickery, and to pull one into endless circular arguments, to which are irrelevant, illogical, and unedifying. I have this choice, and it is biblically supported and followed. This is the type of question that is hindering on that. But I am getting tired of being accused of things that are just plain not true, to slander not only my person, but the truth that I and others here share. The only argumentative spirit is coming from those who do NOT LIKE HEARING THE TRUTH of this issue, then attack the messengers of that truth, and also the truth.
You are evading a simple question by using ad hominem attacks, Michelle. You clearly do not want to answer the question. It is not a question of trickery nor is it an accusation. Do people in other countries have to study English in order to have the word of God?

God loves people in Africa, China, Italy, Mexico, Brazil, Spain, Russia, etc. just as much as he loves people who speak English. That is a truth from God's word.
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Originally posted by michelle:
NO, what I have been saying and will continue to say and believe, until my last dying breath, or until my Lord Jesus Christ comes to take us home is: what Jesus spoke, in the Old and New testament is what we have today in our English language perfectly. Same words, same meaning.
Amazing. I have genuinely never heard such a belief and I've read the most extreme of the only writers.

You have some 'splaining to do on that one. :confused:
 

michelle

New Member
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We give not only scriptural, but historical proofs and you arbitrarily reject them under the guise of KJVOnlyism. This is not only lacking in knowledge, but lacking in honesty. ALL the doctrines and fundamentals of the faith are found intact in the MV's. You have consistantly chosen not to prove that statement wrong. I challenge you to prove it wrong. You will avoid it, of course, because you cannot prove one single doctrine or fundamental that is destroyed by the MV's. You cannot prove that the MV's are not "preserved" also.
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And you say this because you reject, or deny the proof and the evidence that has been given to you concerning this. I can't help you there. Many have given you the evidence. Stop saying it hasn't been shown, nor proven, when indeed it has.
Many are compromising with the error against the truth and the evidence/proof thereof. This is your own fault. You are never going to see it, or the truth of this issue, if you approach this issue looking through the bias of a false and man made label. God's word of truth does not have a label or name attached to it. His word of truth is evident and known on it's own. (John 10,16,17)

Hebrews 4

12. For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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You cannot prove that the MV's are not "preserved" also.
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How can they be the preserved word of God, when it is new in that it is altering/changing the old, and has been foreign from the churches for generations? (Psalm 12)

1 Tim. 3

15. But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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don't mean to spout the mindless drivel that has been coming out, but RIGHTLY DIVIDE and prove your points from the Word of God.
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And I, along with others, have consistently supported this with scripture. It has been many on the mv side that has not. I have done this in many cases, but the moderators now have the right to DEEM what is relevant scripture and what is not to an issue on their own, and so now my defense and support, to which is the scriptures, in many cases has been taken away, at the moderators own discretion.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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I'm tired of you demeaning my brothers and sisters on these forums and then crying when they answer the attacks back.
You sound like the John Kerry of the KJVO sect. You want to accuse others of doing exactly what you're doing and cry about it.
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Who is demeaning who, and accusing who here? Am I also not your sister in Christ? It appears from the above comments, you do not consider me such. I do consider you a brother in Christ, and also the others on these boards.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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Michelle, I never called you these names. Your remark about the little birdie as a response to a serious question I had wasa condescending.


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I never said you did, however you have never come to mine, nor anyone else's defense when it has and does occur to us. Yet you complain about something I asked you which was not in any way meant to be, nor was condescending to you?

I am sorry and apologize to you, if you really feel this was being condescending to you. I in no way meant it that way. And if I saw anyone on these threads, accuse you falsely of those things that have been accused of many of us, I would be the first to come to your defense, as a sister in Christ.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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Okay, then you are saying that Jesus spoke 17th century English, because you say that the same words in "our English language" are the words Jesus spoke and are what is in the OT. Isn't this what you are saying??

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You will understand, once you can answer and acknowledge the truth in this: God is the author, creator and soveriegn of all things, including languages. God has foreknowledge of all things.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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You are evading a simple question by using ad hominem attacks, Michelle. You clearly do not want to answer the question. It is not a question of trickery nor is it an accusation. Do people in other countries have to study English in order to have the word of God?

God loves people in Africa, China, Italy, Mexico, Brazil, Spain, Russia, etc. just as much as he loves people who speak English. That is a truth from God's word.
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I have already answered this:

Michelle replied:
I don't focus my attention concerning this issue, with things that have nothing to do with the issue here at hand, and that is God's word of truth in our own language. I by faith, believe that the faithful in other countries are given the whole counsel of God. Where they find it, the Lord will show them, to wherever it is. Only the Lord knows this question, and those who are living in other countries who are the faithful know this. And I HAVE ANSWERED THIS BEFORE. So please stop accusing me, as many here have a bad habit of doing, that I do not answer your questions. I answer most questions. There are some questions however, not worthy of answering, as they are questions of trickery, and to pull one into endless circular arguments, to which are irrelevant, illogical, and unedifying. I have this choice, and it is biblically supported and followed. This is the type of question that is hindering on that. But I am getting tired of being accused of things that are just plain not true, to slander not only my person, but the truth that I and others here share. The only argumentative spirit is coming from those who do NOT LIKE HEARING THE TRUTH of this issue, then attack the messengers of that truth, and also the truth.
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You can take it, or leave, but it HAS BEEN ANSWERED, so please stop accusing me of not answering something I have already answered truthfully. Just because you do not like my answer, doesn't mean it wasn't answered. My children often ask me if they can have a treat. When I tell them no, they often think I haven't answered, and continue asking me, even though I have already answered it. This is because they desire for me to change my answer to fit their desire/preconcieved idea. Sorry. I am not going to play this game. I have answered and this is the last time I am responding to this question.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

natters

New Member
michelle said "How can they be the preserved word of God, when it is new in that it is altering/changing the old, and has been foreign from the churches for generations?"

That's basically the question we were asking you in the Geneva/KJV comparison thread! Your position there was that the KJV altered/changed the word of God, yet was also a preservation of the word of God. You now ask a very good question: how can this be?
 

michelle

New Member
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michelle said "How can they be the preserved word of God, when it is new in that it is altering/changing the old, and has been foreign from the churches for generations?"

That's basically the question we were asking you in the Geneva/KJV comparison thread! Your position there was that the KJV altered/changed the word of God, yet was also a preservation of the word of God. You now ask a very good question: how can this be?
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Because the KJB did not ALTER, nor CHANGE from the Geneva. The mv's have ALTERED and CHANGED the truth in the word of God from what the churches have ALWAYS had and known. The problem of many is their lack in understanding what error/altering/changing is, and not understanding there are also different reasons for what appears to be different. You cannot lump them all into the same lump. Generalizing is not a very good thing to do in most cases. This is sadly what many are doing, and because of this, do not see the truth. One cannot also ignore the 300 years of the scriptures in our very own language, that God has provided for us and put his stamp of approval upon. To then tell me, God is taking away from those things, and changing things to alter this history of God's truth in the English churches, all of a sudden today. Sorry. This is false and contrary to the truth and the evidence and the history of the word of God.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

natters

New Member
michelle said "Because the KJB did not ALTER, nor CHANGE from the Geneva."

michelle, you are unbelievable in all senses of the word. I provided many examples of where it did alter and change, and you even admitted they were changes. You said "They obviously did not yet have the perfect word of God yet." You said "Geneva translated that word wrong." You said the KJV had "better/more accurate words". You said "they didn't yet have the complete and perfect word in their language yet".

You are again completely contradicting yourself. You are defeating your own arguments. I no longer have to debate against you, I simply have to remind you of where you are debating against yourself.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by michelle:


Because the KJB did not ALTER, nor CHANGE from the Geneva. The mv's have ALTERED and CHANGED the truth in the word of God from what the churches have ALWAYS had and known.
Leviticus 19
35 Ye shall do no unrighteousness in judgment, in meteyard, in weight, or in measure.
36 Just balances, just weights, a just ephah, and a just hin, shall ye have: I am the LORD your God, which brought you out of the land of Egypt.
37 Therefore shall ye observe all my statutes, and all my judgments, and do them: I am the LORD.

You are doing unrighteousness in judgment by applying a double standard that this scripture clearly condemns.
The problem of many is their lack in understanding what error/altering/changing is, and not understanding there are also different reasons for what appears to be different. You cannot lump them all into the same lump. Generalizing is not a very good thing to do in most cases. This is sadly what many are doing, and because of this, do not see the truth.
This sounds like a confession... this is exactly what you do and where you err.
One cannot also ignore the 300 years of the scriptures in our very own language, that God has provided for us and put his stamp of approval upon.
Why? You have ignored the recent history of blessings due to the impact of MV's as well as ignoring 1500 years before 1611. You also ignore much of the history of the 17th century that details the character of the men and church that gave us the KJV as well as the actions of Archbishop Laud that made the KJV the common Bible for about 200 years after.
To then tell me, God is taking away from those things, and changing things to alter this history of God's truth in the English churches, all of a sudden today. Sorry. This is false and contrary to the truth and the evidence and the history of the word of God.
Yet you would tell us that God changed things in 1611 from what He had already preserved for 1500+ years?
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Michelle - you stated clearly that Jesus spoke the exact words of the AV1611 English.

When called down on such an odd teaching, you said it was because he had foreknowledge of the language.

Where on earth are you getting this teaching from? It is more than bothersome; it is so heterodox that I can't understand how anyone could believe it.

Thanks for giving the source. I need to look it up and see who/what is behind it.
 

natters

New Member
Dr.Bob said "Michelle - you stated clearly that Jesus spoke the exact words of the AV1611 English. When called down on such an odd teaching, you said it was because he had foreknowledge of the language."

I missed where michelle said that. Can you provide a link to the post?
 

Johnv

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
One cannot also ignore the 300 years of the scriptures in our very own language, that God has provided for us and put his stamp of approval upon.

Actually, that statement is quite misleading. The KJV as is commonly used today dates back only about 225 years. In the nearly 170 years that the KJV existed prior to that, it underwent two MAJOR revisions, primarily to update the language. The fact that the KJV has not been updated in 225 years suggests that an update is overdue.
 
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