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Michelle, I never called you these names. Your remark about the little birdie as a response to a serious question I had wasa condescending.Originally posted by michelle:
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Asking me if it was a little birdie is pretty condescending, Michelle. I would think someone like you who is always quoting the Bible would be more sisterly.
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And I don't think it is very christlike, and is very condescending for many here to be calling what I believe cultic, sectic, heresy, myth, gnostic, cancerous etc. I also don't see that calling other christians trolls, rabid, disciples of Riplinger, venomous, sister and sweetheart (ungenuinely), etc. to be very christlike. Please explain to me how my question to you was in the family of this? Yet, you, as my sister in Christ, never speak against this sort of thing, but make false accusation toward me for my above question?
Posted by Marcia:
Are you saying that they spoke English in Israel? They spoke Hebrew and Aramaic. The manuscripts that we do have and that were used for the earliest Bibles were mostly Hebrew for the OT and Greek for the NT.
I really want to know: are you saying that Jesus spoke King James English and the writers of the NT wrote down his words in King James English? Help me understand.
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Michelle responded:
Okay, then you are saying that Jesus spoke 17th century English, because you say that the same words in "our English language" are the words Jesus spoke and are what is in the OT. Isn't this what you are saying??Where did I say such a thing? NO, what I have been saying and will continue to say and believe, until my last dying breath, or until my Lord Jesus Christ comes to take us home is: what Jesus spoke, in the Old and New testament is what we have today in our English language perfectly. Same words, same meaning. Exactly how God desired for us to have.
You are evading a simple question by using ad hominem attacks, Michelle. You clearly do not want to answer the question. It is not a question of trickery nor is it an accusation. Do people in other countries have to study English in order to have the word of God?Marcia posted:
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Also, you did not answer my question. Do you believe that people in other countries must study English in order to read God's word? That is not a hard question; please answer.
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Michelle replied:
I don't focus my attention concerning this issue, with things that have nothing to do with the issue here at hand, and that is God's word of truth in our own language. I by faith, believe that the faithful in other countries are given the whole counsel of God. Where they find it, the Lord will show them, to wherever it is. Only the Lord knows this question, and those who are living in other countries who are the faithful know this. And I HAVE ANSWERED THIS BEFORE. So please stop accusing me, as many here have a bad habit of doing, that I do not answer your questions. I answer most questions. There are some questions however, not worthy of answering, as they are questions of trickery, and to pull one into endless circular arguments, to which are irrelevant, illogical, and unedifying. I have this choice, and it is biblically supported and followed. This is the type of question that is hindering on that. But I am getting tired of being accused of things that are just plain not true, to slander not only my person, but the truth that I and others here share. The only argumentative spirit is coming from those who do NOT LIKE HEARING THE TRUTH of this issue, then attack the messengers of that truth, and also the truth.
God loves people in Africa, China, Italy, Mexico, Brazil, Spain, Russia, etc. just as much as he loves people who speak English. That is a truth from God's word.
Amazing. I have genuinely never heard such a belief and I've read the most extreme of the only writers.Originally posted by michelle:
NO, what I have been saying and will continue to say and believe, until my last dying breath, or until my Lord Jesus Christ comes to take us home is: what Jesus spoke, in the Old and New testament is what we have today in our English language perfectly. Same words, same meaning.
Leviticus 19Originally posted by michelle:
Because the KJB did not ALTER, nor CHANGE from the Geneva. The mv's have ALTERED and CHANGED the truth in the word of God from what the churches have ALWAYS had and known.
This sounds like a confession... this is exactly what you do and where you err.The problem of many is their lack in understanding what error/altering/changing is, and not understanding there are also different reasons for what appears to be different. You cannot lump them all into the same lump. Generalizing is not a very good thing to do in most cases. This is sadly what many are doing, and because of this, do not see the truth.
Why? You have ignored the recent history of blessings due to the impact of MV's as well as ignoring 1500 years before 1611. You also ignore much of the history of the 17th century that details the character of the men and church that gave us the KJV as well as the actions of Archbishop Laud that made the KJV the common Bible for about 200 years after.One cannot also ignore the 300 years of the scriptures in our very own language, that God has provided for us and put his stamp of approval upon.
Yet you would tell us that God changed things in 1611 from what He had already preserved for 1500+ years?To then tell me, God is taking away from those things, and changing things to alter this history of God's truth in the English churches, all of a sudden today. Sorry. This is false and contrary to the truth and the evidence and the history of the word of God.
Originally posted by michelle:
One cannot also ignore the 300 years of the scriptures in our very own language, that God has provided for us and put his stamp of approval upon.
Here 'tisOriginally posted by natters:
Dr.Bob said "Michelle - you stated clearly that Jesus spoke the exact words of the AV1611 English. When called down on such an odd teaching, you said it was because he had foreknowledge of the language."
I missed where michelle said that. Can you provide a link to the post?