Originally posted by Eladar:
If this is incorrect, then why is slavery allowed in the Christian community?
First of all, I am failing to see any relevance of this issue to the one at hand.
Secondly, Paul (and Moses as far as that goes) addressed slavery as an issue that already existed within the society. Neither Christianity nor Judaism established slavery as an institution. Christianity is not political or social activism. It is the means to salvation giving us entry into the Heavenly realm. I made a post on this issue not long ago:
http://www.baptistboard.com/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic;f=62;t=000016;p=7
You are shifting the goal post on me, which is a technique you have often used. Just to keep you from nimbly sidestepping the issue at hand that first brought me onto the thread, my position holds:
1) The state (police and courts) are established by God to defend the good and punish the wicked (Romans 13);
2) A Christian has a right to defend his or herself as Christ commanded the purchase of swords (Luke 22:36);
3) Christ further showed the use of force in defending the Temple against men's envy, greed and ambition, which, by the way, did not occur within the Most Holy Place, the inner Temple, but in the outer courts (John 2:15);
4) A parallel is made clearly in the Scriptures that the physical body of the believer is the dwelling place of the Holy Spirit and is therefore a Temple (cf. 1Corinthians 6:19-20)
Your original assertion was that there was no Biblical defense for a woman calling the police if her husband abused her basing this assertion on Matthew 5:39. I have shown you otherwise. Your question of slavery is irrelevant to the discussion.