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Words or Message??

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superdave

New Member
Very true, Jesus spoke specific words in Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic, maybe even some others

Unfortunately, there is always interpretation in any translation.

The meaning, or the message, is what the original intent of the author was, in other words, the Bible can never mean what it never meant.

Thus, scripture cannot be used to support any single translation as the only or best in any language. Since the authors were not intending to support any modern version (including the AV) We have to use other methods. Most of which are flawed in one way or another.

I am content to know that there are 3 or 4 versions in my native language that I can trust to give me a very good sense of the original meanings, and a very large body of texts that those translations were based on, with less than 2% difference in the overall words, an amazing thing that is definately due to the providential preservation of God! PTL
 
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Johnv

New Member
I have a Cuban friend of mine who often uses a phrase when someone's complaing a lot. The phrase tralslates to english as "this egg wants salt". In Cuban, it's the equivalent of saying to a whiner, "would you like some cheese with your whine?". I could see someone translating Cuban (which is actually spanish, but with idiomatic differences) to English, and a group pf philosophers hundred of years from now debating what eggs and salt had to do with a person who complained a lot. ;)
 
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presbuteros

New Member
If God gave to the authors the exact words he wanted recorded, how come Paul's vocab is quite distinct from Luke's? Doesn't it make more sense to say that Paul recorded God's message in Paul's vocab and Luke recorded God's message in Luke's? But in both cases, it was God's message?

Also, a thought without specific words can be meaningful. A baby can have lots of thoughts and no developed vocabulary. Words flow out of thoughts, not vice versa. Moreover, words without thoughts are meaningless.

Finally, if we should emphasize the words to the degree that some want to, is the translation "God forbid" in the KJV really the Word of God, since neither "God" or "forbid" are in the original "words"?

Enjoying the discussion...
 
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