I don't believe there is a verse in scripture that states that 'the Father poured out His wrath upon Jesus'. “For our sake He made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God” (
2 Corinthians 5:21) doesn't mean that the Father destined His Son to pour out His wrath upon' at Calvary but as a 'sin offering'. There is a difference. The Catholic Catechism says the following:
615 "For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so by one man’s obedience many will be made righteous."443 By his obedience unto death, Jesus accomplished the substitution of the suffering Servant, who “makes himself an offering for sin”, when “he bore the sin of many”, and who “shall make many to be accounted righteous”, for “he shall bear their iniquities”.444 Jesus atoned for our faults and made satisfaction for our sins to the Father.445
This is the very essence of the Gospel: that Jesus Christ lived a perfect life that we as Christians should live, and died the death that we deserve to die because of our sin. The Apostles’ Creed states that Jesus “descended into hell,” and St. Paul explains the importance of this in Romans 5:17-18:
'For if, because of one man’s trespass, death reigned through one man (Adam), much more will those who receive the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man Jesus Christ. Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men.'
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n other words, Jesus died on the cross and descended to hell until the Resurrection, and that satisfies God’s just demands for our sins (a sin offering). That is exactly why God is “faithful and just” 1 John 1:9 to forgive our sins when we confess: because Christ has already atoned for our sins.
Would you please take a moment to listen to Jimmy Akin's comments on the subject (please go to the 28 minute mark) and let me know what your thoughts are?