Blammo said:
Third option: I don't know?
That would be fine with me.
Could another possible option be, (we are elect according to foreknowledge, as opposed to elect according to foredetermination)?
I am not trying to be difficult. I have given this alot of thought and study over the last couple of days, and I probably would have stayed out of it if James hadn't answered a question I asked last week.
Well, that's what the Bible says, although you have to understand that the Greek word for "foreknew" means "knew intimately beforehand" not "knew what they would do beforehand".
In fact, the whole logical progress is mapped out in this one passage in Romans 8:
29 For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. 30 And those he predestined, he also called; those he called, he also justified; those he justified, he also glorified.
Note the tense. It's a done deal right from the start. Those He foreknew -> predestined -> called -> justified -> glorified.
Foreknowing intimately does not even imply "picking people", let alone "picking people at random". There are those who God simply foreknew intimately. The rest He never knew, as in when Jesus says "Depart from me, I never KNEW you". That's the same Greek word, only without the "fore". I never "KNEW" you means, "I never knew you intimately."
The question is, why does God foreknow intimately some and not others? I don't think the Bible answers that question anywhere. So I simply don't think we'll know the answer this side of heaven.
But I wonder about this, too, and that's one reason why I asked if it is possible that the world is made up of wheat and tares (children of God, and children of the devil). I know that in one sense we aren't children of God until we're saved (we're adopted at that point). But what I'm talking about is God having sown some into the world, and the devil having sown the others. "Those He foreknew" refers to those God has sown, and having "lost" them through the fall, He is now seeking and saving those who always belonged to Him.
But let me be PERFECTLY CLEAR that this is just WILD speculation, and nothing more than that. I am not suggesting this answers your question, and I would never commit to this as an answer to anyone. It has far too little clear support from scripture to believe it. So I don't mean to offer it here as an answer, I'm just explaining that my curiosity is the same as yours, which is what led me to wonder if the above explanation could even remotely be tied to the answer.