That is not what Paul is stating. "Doers" not doer.And here is what we know, there is only one person in history that has done this. ONE. Jesus Christ.
In isolation it would be.No, that may be what the post talked about, but the part quoted in this OP is where his post went into straight heresy.
But in context of what verse he is using, it is not.
From where do you gather this? There is nothing from the Scripture account that gives this information. At best, Moses was taught the history up to that date by his mother, but even that is assumed because she nursed him.Moses looked to the future Messiah. The savior. He believed the promise. So in that sense, yes. He did.
Are you expressing that Moses and Aaron didn't live "according to the law?"That is not what this is saying at all. Nobody lives according to the law.
How about Joshua and Caleb, David, Elijah and the others?
Did the rich young ruler not express that he had kept the law from his youth?
Or are you saying that one is made sinless by keeping the law?
The keeping of the law makes no one sinless, rather, the law declares the need to be made sinless. The law is not the reformer but the teacher of need to reform, and one finding that reformation is not enough is then pressed by the law into the need of a redemption.
Prior to the written law, the law already existed and continues to exist in the all hearts. The Jews were entrusted with the "oracles of God" but that did not mean the heart of all humankind was and is not written upon. Rather, that written upon the heart was darkened, marred, perverted, ... as Romans 1 declares.
One does not have to make the world aware of sin. The law is already written in the heart, the Holy Spirit already at work bringing conviction and the knowledge of condemnation, of
course it is heretical.
Out of context, yes. In context, no.
Look at the Scripture principle concerning the law and righteousness given in Romans 4:
Paul is showing that is was not the work of Abraham but "to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,"
7“Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,
and whose sins are covered;
8blessed is the man against whom the Lord will not count his sin.”
9Is this blessing then only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? For we say that faith was counted to Abraham as righteousness. 10How then was it counted to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised. 11He received the sign of circumcision as a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised, so that righteousness would be counted to them as well,12and to make him the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.and whose sins are covered;
8blessed is the man against whom the Lord will not count his sin.”
So, the principle applied then is that despite (as John 1 declares) one turns from the light, but turns back (repents) and dwell in the light, to that person the Scriptures state God gives the authority to become His child.
That is the context of which Romans is expressing, and that which the post you objected is making.