You don't think stoping abortion is a good motive?
No, for the tenth time. Anyone who thinks that stopping abortion justifies the unauthorized execution of a human being is either very sick or very evil.
Now, you are bluring the line between motive and means again. The motive is presumed to be pure for the sake of the argument, and unless you can prove that is never possible there is no grounds to presume otherwise.
The motive is not pure; it does not matter what you presume.
Motive is about obedience or disobedience to God.
There are three things to consider:
1. Obedience to God is a good motive.
2. Disobedience to God is an evil motive.
3. Where an action is neither obedience or disobedience, there is liberty. (wearing socks is neither obedience or disobedience to God)
Therefore, motive is about answering this question: Is it right to do this to accomplish that?
If you can discover that the answer to that question is, "yes", then you will have the proper motive for what you do.
If you do not discover that the answer is, "yes", then you will NOT have the proper motive for what you do.
The determiner of whether or not the answer is, "yes", is whether or not the motive is obedience to God.
Illustration:
Chewing bubble gum is not disobedience to God. In this we have liberty.
So, if by some heretofore, unknown law of the universe I can chew a certain flavor of bubble gum and thereby stop all abortion from ever taking place then my motive can be pure.
But if the Word of God condemns all unauthorized taking of human life, and it does, and I take a human life without authorization to stop abortion- my motive is EVIL. Period.
Why? Because my motive was guided by a lack of desire to conform my way to his demands.
Any time a man is moved to an action by a spirit of indifference or outright rebellion to the demands of God upon his life, his motive is EVIL. Period.
You may say, "But what if he truly BELIEVES he is conforming to the demands of God upon his life by killing abortionists?"
It is still evil. He had to violate his conscience which, at some point in his life, told him clearly that such an action of this magnitude that involves the taking of human life must not be done until there is full assurance that such an action has the approval of God. That assurance must come by being rightly convinced
in Scripture that such an action will not violate the demands of God upon his life.
You may say, "But what if he reads the Bible and interprets it to tell him he SHOULD do such an action?"
Either the man is mad, OR this very question undermines the great doctrine of the Christian Faith known as: The Perspicuity of Scripture.
The Bible is NOT ambiguous on such matters and any sane man will not be led to the conclusion BY THE SCRIPTURES that the unauthorized taking of a human being's life is approved by God.
Let me try it this way. We both agree that God promised to never flood the entire earth as he did in Noah's day, right? What if God did flood the earth again thus breaking that promise? (please don't say, well then he never made that promise because we are accepting that he did make that promise but decided to break it and flood the earth for a good reason) Is that possible? Can God break his own promise as long it is for a good reason?
No, it is not possible.
God can do whatever he pleases whenever he pleases and is not bound by ANY standard at all ever. BUT what always pleases him is to be consistent with himself at all times forever.
God cannot lie. Why? Several reasons- I'll give a couple:
1. Because God has no reason to say that he is going to do something and then not do it. We lie because it helps us get our way. Why would God need to do such a thing to get his way? Since God is immutable and all-wise he cannot be unreasonable. He is the source of reason. If he has no reason behind what he does then he is being unreasonable which is impossible with God.
2. Because to say he was going to do something and NOT do it would be to be inconsistent with Himself. It is never his pleasure at any moment forever to be inconsistent with who he is. He is perfect just as He is. To be inconsistent with himself would be to make himself less than perfect. God cannot be less than perfect and still be God and God cannot ever NOT be God, THEREFORE he cannot be inconsistent with himself which MEANS... he cannot lie.
Can he promise to save you and then change his mind for good reason? In other words, once God promises to do something is he obligated to do that thing, or could he NOT do it for a good reason and it be okay?
He cannot do this because it would be to be inconsistent with himself. Lying is being inconsistent with one's self.
The motive is different and the means are different, so I don't see your point. The motive of a solder is pure and the means he is using is pure. The motive of the criminal in the neighborhood is impure and his means are impure. What point are you trying to make with this?
A means CANNOT be pure or impure. It has no personality. Only persons can have morality. Means are not persons and do not possess morality.
A grizzly bear can rip a man to shreds and eat him while he is alive (please pardon the picture) and it will be neither good nor evil.
A human being can do this and it will be evil.
Tell me what you think the difference is?
Is ripping a man to shreds and eating him while he is alive evil? That is the means. Is the means evil in and of itself? Or does it require a person with a motive to make it evil?
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I googled the term and this popped up. I am satisfied with
this definition.
In Ephesians 1:5, the Greek verb "pro· o•ree· sas", rendered "foreordained", is formed from a combination of the Greek preposition "pro" meaning "before" prefixed to the word "o· ree· zo", meaning boundary or limits or restrictions. Hence, its etymological meaning conveys the idea of to limit, restrict and mark out beforehand to "in prior time design and determine" or to "ordain before hand", thus to specifically predestinate or predetermine.