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Featured When did Christ embrace Sonship?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by evangelist6589, Jan 1, 2016.

  1. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Stephen King's short story "Sometimes They Come Back" may be applicable. Barefoot
     
  2. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Christ is God and always existed as God and with the father. Do not try and turn "eternal son-ship" into heresy.
     
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  3. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    The mods should know
     
  4. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    No one denied that Christ is eternally God. No one even denied a triune relationship within the Godhead.

    Depending on your definition of "son-ship," your view may very well be heresy. No one here really knows because you have thus far refused to define your position and provide your source. So if you are saying that there never was a time when Christ became obedient and "not-equal" in some way to the Father, then you are putting forward a false doctrine. Brother - you have to define your terms and provide your source to ethically engage this discussion with any amount of integrity.

    Why do you believe the doctrine of sonship to be eternal and how do you define sonship?
     
  5. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    If you recall, Preacher4Truth was not known for his integrity. He got so bad that several members even questioned his salvation - one publically (and that to little if any objection). All he'd have to do is misrepresent himself, and I doubt any of us think it past him. Look at all the repeat and banned trolls we get.
     
    #45 JonC, Jan 3, 2016
    Last edited: Jan 3, 2016
  6. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Such a claim! Upon what authority do you make such a claim?

    I am not "try(ing) and turn(ing) the 'eternal son-ship' into heresy." Such a claim is wrong on a number of levels.

    You misunderstand, that the eternal PAST quality of the son DID NOT include the fleshly form that He, by putting off the glory of the Father to take as the only natural born son, was once adorned. This is consistent with the statement recorded in John 17:5:
    "Now, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was."​

    What I AM claiming is the Scriptures present that the eternal Christ set aside the glory to become the one and only natural born son in flesh and as such the first fruits of those who raise from the dead to ascend. That is the presentation of Scriptures, some of the very Scriptures YOU listed.

    Remember the prayer of the Lord Jesus about the Father restoring the glory they once both shared? So, the "son" (as stated in John) was "begotten" as the one and only natural born Son is in no dispute with the "Word became flesh" earlier in by the same author.

    There are those who would make much of the separate "persons" of the trinity, as if one is a pan theist. "God in three persons" as the hymn is a single God IN three persons.

    "Let US make man in our image" is in no dispute with "In the beginning God (Elohim) (PLURAL) created..." creating all things. AND there is no dipute with "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God... And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth."

    God is ONE, making attempts to place the son as some separate authority is not following the teaching of Scriptures: "The Lord your God is ONE Lord," "The Father and I are one," and "I AM."

    Do not throw the word "heresy" so carelessly as some would.

    Prove BY SCRIPTURE that I am in error, or need to modify my thinking. That is all I have EVER desired from those that would attempt to make some wild claim about what I have posted.
     
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  7. JamesL

    JamesL Well-Known Member
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    Only a week ago, someone quoted him and specifically addressed him something like "P4T do you...."
    And he replied something like "yes I do"
     
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  8. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus Christ Our Lord pp.38-39

    Son of God

    This title used in the scriptures of both angels and men, when used of Christ is designed to express His eternal relationship to the father.....The title refers to an eternal relationship of the son to the Father.
     
  9. Rolfe

    Rolfe Well-Known Member
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    Try offering him a piece of hamburger.

    *woof*
     
  10. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Ok, you’re reading Walvoord. I have this one in my library (although not from seminary).

    So your objection to my view (taking that you are merely echoing Walvoord) is that I “leave unexplained the mystery of the relation of the first Person to the second Person” of the Godhead. But given my definition and passages, this is not true. I actually relied on John’s explanation of λόγος as the second Person of the Trinity and allowed “son-ship” to be defined as this λόγος becoming flesh.

    In other words, we were working off different definitions. I had taken the title “Son of God” to refer to a specific relationship that is embodied in Christ’s earthly life, therefore it could not be an eternal title. There was a specific time when the λόγος became flesh. And Paul informs us that this was a time when the second Person of the Trinity set aside an “equality” with God in submission and obedience.

    If, however, you take “Son of God” to be an OT title as well (an eternal title) then I’m fine with that as long as long as you can substantiate your claims. Are there any OT references of the second Person of the Godhead being called the “Son of God”? Also, what is the difference in roles between Christ’s glory (and state with the Father) pre-incarnation/post-resurrection and the time between becoming obedient/setting aside glory and it being regained?

    In other words, how do you account for the "new" relationship as Christ sets aside this equality, this glory, and become obedient to the Father in terms of Incarnation within your "eternal son-ship" view? What exactly does "son-ship mean here, anyway (surely you are not just talking about a title)?
     
    #50 JonC, Jan 3, 2016
    Last edited: Jan 3, 2016
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  11. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Go chase a cat! ImageUploadedByTapatalk1451857145.656900.jpg
     
  12. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Good move changing that photo. The other kitten was cute but the photo itself was a bit awkward. Is this your cat?
     
    #52 JonC, Jan 3, 2016
    Last edited: Jan 3, 2016
  13. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Hey Evan, maybe this will help us move forward. In what ways to you view the role between the persons of the Trinity as changing in terms of kenosis? Or do you believer there was ever a change? Did Christ set aside "equality" with God, and did he become obedient?
     
  14. Rolfe

    Rolfe Well-Known Member
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    My comment was not an insult directed at you.

    You do not understand humor. I would explain it to you, but I do not have any crayons.
     
    #54 Rolfe, Jan 3, 2016
    Last edited: Jan 3, 2016
  15. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Again, brother, it seems that the kenosis carries a specific and temporal implication in regards to Christ’s role in relation to the Father (as He became obedient, set aside “equality”, and put aside his own glory until given once again from the Father). How do you account for this in your theory of Son-ship, and what role does John’s explanation of λόγος play in your understanding?
     
    #55 JonC, Jan 3, 2016
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  16. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Well when he came to earth he set things aside and became obedient. This does not mean he became less than God, but he became obedient in terms of his "function" and submission to the father.
     
  17. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I don't think anyone here is claiming that Jesus became less God, brother. How would you describe this relationship of "son-ship" before Jesus became man (apart from "becoming obedient")?
     
  18. JamesL

    JamesL Well-Known Member
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    What "things" do you believe He set aside?

    On what, pray tell, do you base your development of this "function" and submission you speak of?
     
  19. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Some of his attributes. For example in the flesh He could not be everywhere at once.

    He submitted to the father and this is shown by how he prayed. But still 100% God and 100% man.
     
  20. a SATS prof

    a SATS prof Member

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    The view that the Kenosis qualified Christ's use of divine attributes is commonly affirmed. I disagree. IMO,the Son, as God, lost nothing. This is arguable both by Theology (the eternality and immutability of God) and , IMO, by Phil 2:7.
     
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