I understand but politely try to show the fallacies in fact or logic. I haven't misrepresented your comments but show if you believe one thing, it leads to another conclusion which you must believe as well.
I also corrected some statement s by showing scripture that must be true and must change the statements interruption.
Exodus has little relation to this posts. There was no inference of Israel as a nation in the dialogue nor the passage referred to. They wanted to kill Him because of "I and my Father are on" and similar statements.
I appreciate the comments, and have considered the interpretations, previously , but I have had to learn to accept scripture, as originally written, even if I do not understand it fully.
What I find objectionable, brother, is your last comment (as it seems to deny anything previously stated). You say that you considered the other interpretations but have had to learn to “accept scripture, as originally written” even if it is beyond your full understanding.
In other words, I could say the same thing. "I have considered your interpretation, but I have to accept Scripture, as originally written". Do you understand the fallacy of your statement?
This is the purpose of every one of those interpretations you have rejected and misrepresented. The “fallacies in fact or logic” that you see are only because you have failed to examine other views within their own context. So let’s once again look at the OP.
John 10:22-42:
1. What is the purpose of this passage (and of the Psalm 82 reference)? Jesus is explaining that he and the Father are one. He is asked to explain plainly if he is the Christ (v. 24) and he replies that he has indeed told them, that his works bear witness about them, but they are not among his sheep and will not believe. But those who are given to him, his sheep, hear his voice. He and the Father are one.
The Jews seek to stone him for blasphemy because he, being a man, makes himself God (v. 33). Jesus answers “Is it not written in your Law,” I said, you are gods?” If he called them gods to whom the word of God came then how do to those Jews accuse Jesus of blasphemy as Jesus is the one the Father consecrated and sent into the world (because Jesus said I am the Son of God).
Jesus is arguing from lesser to greater (which was a common rabbinic device….we also see this often with Paul). If there is a sense in which mere man can be called “Elohim” then how much more is it appropriate for the one that God consecrated and sent to hold this description.
2. Let’s look at how the Jesus’ audience would have understood these issues of which we speak. This is why Exodus is important. We can understand how these Jews would have taken many of those terms and descriptions (we don’t have to place the passage in a contemporary setting).
If you were in the audience, who would you consider to be God’s firstborn son? I asked you this for illustration. But the answer is Israel. In fact, Israel is called God’s firstborn son (Ex. 4:21-22).
If you were a Jew listening to Jesus’ words, “those to whom the Law came” would be taken to identify what target? Israel (and always Israel).
The issue of calling Israel (and their leaders) "gods" is arguing for the divinity of Christ, and this is why the Jews wanted to stone him. Jesus' quote of Psalm 82 was not a pause in the discussion, but it was a part of the context of the entire passage.
If you are willing to discuss various interpretations honestly, and interact with not only other interpretations but also the context in which they are presented, then this could be an interesting topic. Your statement excluding the Exodus as non-applicable to the topic (when it's relevance is obvious to the context of other interpretations....i.e., that Psalm 82 is pointing to Israel at the giving of the Law, or that "elohim" is used to speak of judges or leaders in Exodus) seems to indicate that you are not willing.