Featured In Heb. 4, the Sabbath points to rest,

Christ did not assemble with his Church on his Resurrection day. Our High Priest was in the most holy sanctuary of his grave for most of the day He Resurrected from the dead and grave on. The Bible in the New as in the Old Testament is silent on what our High Priest did after he had come out of the Deep until He appeared to some individuals on the First Day of the week after He had resurrected “ON THE SABBATH BEFORE the First Day of the week”—written, in Matthew 28:1-4 and implied everywhere else in Scripture.

All we can be absolutely sure about, is that “God raised Christ from the dead by the Glory of the Father … with the Spirit of Holiness”, ‘IN FULL FELLOWSHIP OF THE TRINITY’ (Klaas Schilder). Time would not bother God after He had raised the Son from the dead and had fulfilled his Promise to and Covenant with his earth and time bound Church, the Body of Christ’s Own, and had finished all his works on the Seventh Day and Rested.

 

Acts 20:7 and 1Corinthians 16:2 do not say or repeat that Sunday was ~the day of worship~. On the contrary, BOTH texts imply the Sabbath as the foregoing Day of Worship. See many times discoursed on BB.

Yes, on one condition, that the Day the LORD has made is the day of the week ~coincedential~ with the day which Jesus is both “Lord of” and had “made”. The First Day never after had been invested with meaning and honour it always before had not been invested with.

 

Sunday worship was no ~consistent practice from the first to the fourth century~ under Christians. It might to an extent have begun to be such ~practice~ in the third century. Which is worthless old news in any case.

If it’s worthless for the Sabbath what is it worth for Sunday?

“12 While dead in your sins God who raised Christ from the dead forgave you all trespasses having quickened you together with Him. Nailing it to the cross and removing it altogether, Christ blotted out the damning law against us; and putting off and ruining the rulers and the authorities [of darkness 1:13], He publicly held them up to shame, triumphing over them in it. [If ye then be raised with Christ 3:1], THEN THEREFORE, don’t you let yourselves be judged and condemned by anyone (of the world 2:8, 20) in your eating and drinking or with regard to your eating and drinking of feast, whether of month’s or of Sabbaths’—all which shadows forth what soon must be, the BODY and SUBSTANCE OF CHRIST!

Let no man not holding to the Head [but] puffed up by his fleshly mind, who conceitedly meddles in what he knows nothing about (the mystery which is Christ 1:28), with his pretentious humility and angelic worship beguile you (with enticing words 2:4) of your reward.

Because holding to the Head nourishment being ministered, all the Body (of Christ’s Own 1:18) by joints and bands [of faith 2:12 Hosea 11:4; peace Ephesians 4:3; and charity Colossians 3:14], and knit together (in love 2:2), will grow with the growth of God.

"Don't you let yourselves be judged by anyone in regard to your eating and drinking of Christ the Substance of Sabbaths' Feast either Lord's Supper of month's or Sabbaths' Feast, which are but the shadow of what imminently must come for you holding to the Head, the Body growing with the growth of God Christ being the Nourishment ministered.”

 

Q~↑What in the world are you talking about? I never said that opse proves that Christ rose after the "last watch between 3 a.m. to 6 am." I said it proves this use of opse proves that it can be translated "after" the end of the Sabbath - that is all I said. 6.p.m to 9 p.m. is AFTER the Sabbath. The word proee and "dawn" prove it occurred between 3 am to 6 a.m.~EndQ


You said, ↑ <<I never said that opse proves that Christ rose after the "last watch between 3 a.m. to 6 am." I said it [~opse~] proves this use of opse proves that it can be translated "after" the end of the Sabbath - that is all I said. …………….>>


And what is <<this use of opse>>?

~this~—Relative Pronoun, refers back to <<the "last watch between 3 a.m. to 6 am.">> and <<after>> it.

(By the way, after <<3 a.m. to 6 am.">> comes 6 a.m. to 12 a.m., if I’m not mistaken.)

And don’t say, <<that is all I said>> but go on to say, ↑<<………. 6.p.m to 9 p.m. is AFTER the Sabbath.>>

If a=b and b=c then a=c. Therefore <<after the Sabbath>> isn’t <<between 3 am to 6 a.m.>> AND <<between 3 am to 6 a.m.>>. It can’t be both; it must be the one or the other, OR NEITHER.

And where do you see the <<word proee and "dawn">> in Matthew 28:1-4? How can words that don’t even appear anywhere, <<prove it [‘opse’ allegedly meaning ~after~] occurred between 3 am to 6 a.m.>>?!

Speaking of me <<attempting to muddy the water>>!? Outrageous!

 

<<Both texts clearly and explicitly teach that the first day of the week was the regular day of worship>> Quote <<clearly and explicitly>> where <<both texts teach that the first day of the week was the regular day of worship>> or save yourself the embarrassment and shut up talking straw briquettes. So, spare yourself the trouble to quote <<the plethora of evidence for obvious first day of the week worship as the consistent and clear day of worship>>, a) in the New Testament, and b) during the first and second century—Justin Martyr of course the only opportunist voice from those two centuries.


Dear Biblicist, please don’t trumpet your total disconnection with reality so loudly. The Seventh-day Adventists don’t differ with you on these two verses; they agree with you in virtually all respects while they could not disagree with ‘my’ interpretation of them more.

Strange coalitions like politics won’t dream of are the norm in Christian dialogue.

 

Not even comical or farcical. It's pathetic, for instance for the dull and dumb non-Scriptural non-entity, <<the Jewish Sabbath>>.

 

Now if <<meeting with lost Jews on the Sabbath in the synogogues for the purpose of evangelization as it was his custom to preach to the Jews first>> was not The Church In The New Testament worshipping on the Sabbath and The Church In The New Testament recorded as worshipping on the Sabbath, then what in the New Testament is or was the Church worshipping on the Sabbath or was or is worshipping on the Sabbath recorded, in the New Testament?

But show in The New Testament where for ONCE the Church was thus worshipping on Sunday or has been thus recorded as worshipping on Sunday! ONCE! You can't , Nobody can, because there's nothing like it in the New Testament <recorded> or insinuated or suggested or hinted at or implied.

 

See what I mean, Biblicist, You have one strong point. It is your consistency in repetition with virtually no inconsistency with yourself.

 

Biblicist,
<<God finished creation in Genesis 2:4 with setting apart a day to commemorate the work of creation>>.

If you aren't a SDA, Biblicist, you used to be one. Only SDA speak this nonsensical gibberish; it's their trade-mark of a bankrupt brand name. Are you still a SOP man?

Hahahahah

 

If you could not find it in the New Testament yourself, DHK, I admit, I won't be able to help you see that evidence.

Another option would be to use old Cruden's and look up the words Sabbath and Sabbaths ... also found under 'day', 'Seventh Day', 'Sabbath Day' and read the context.

Pretending! I dislike drama. Except Shakespeare who calls a spade a spade sometimes.

 

Biblicist: <<Matthew 28:1 does not teach … worship as the Greek term opse is used in the New Testament for a period of time that occurs AFTER the completion of the previous day (Mk. 13:35)>>

The instance of ‘opse’ in Matthew 28:1 and context, is another than the instance of ‘opse’ in Mark 13:35 and context, with exactly the same meaning but another application, altogether.

In Matthew 28:1 ‘opse’ means “in the end(ing) of the Sabbath” before sunset, because in the Bible the Sabbath always is from sunset to sunset and ends sunset, e.g., KJV.

In Mark though, ‘opse’ in 13:35 means “in the late of the day” -cycle before sunset as the first halve of the period midday “until the middle-of-night”—‘mesonuktion’… NOT, <<for a period of time that occurs AFTER the completion of the previous day>>.

‘Opse’ never meant <<a period of time that occurs AFTER the completion of the previous>>… never for thousand years BC and never for two thousand years AD., and NEVER, <<MAY>> have been <<translated to mean AFTER the Sabbath>>. Philostratus used ‘opse’ as a Preposition meaning ‘after’ with the Ablative meaning “late-in-the-ending of” things like spring or war. He never used ‘opse’ to mean <<a period of time that occurs AFTER the completion of the previous>> which in any case, would have required an Accusative but never occurred with.

The lie of the claim that ‘opse’ means <<a period of time that occurs AFTER the completion of the previous>> or <<MAY betranslated to mean AFTER the Sabbath>> in Matthew 28:1 or anywhere else is becoming more and more a lie in most unworthy of Christian fashion.

This lie in its superlative, is claiming ‘opse’ <<may be translated "after" … AFTER the previous day …Christ may come … proii - 3-6 a.m. … opse still refers to a time period AFTER the close of the previous day rather than late in that day. …AFTER the Sabbath. The word proee and "dawn" prove it occurred between 3 am to 6 a.m.>> (Bold GE.) Just like Samuele Bacchiocchi.

But you tell me, I am <<confusing proee with opse>>!? Man o man. And look whom you are quoting, mister, the Biblicist, not GE!!

 

No comment; your post (echoing DHK’s) speaks for itself. Just remember, God is also a reader of our posts.