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Featured Has dispensationalism contributed to mistaken worldviews, or is it the truth ?

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by Iconoclast, Sep 14, 2016.

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  1. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    How do you come to that conclusion? You said it, not me.


    No I don't when its done in a comparative and metaphorical way as Paul has done, otherwise - yes, redeemed Israel and the church are distinct from each other - not separate, both the children of God of different ages who will inhabit the city "not built with hands" in the unforetold future.
    They are distinct in history and in local goverment.

    We go to church on the first day of the week and not to the synagogue on the last day of the week.
    We baptize, not circumcise.

    3 for we are the circumcision [the Israel of God], who worship by the Spirit of God, and glory in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh: Phil 3

    I am glad you put "the Israel of God" in brackets.
    Again "circumcision" is a metaphor for the rebirth.

    If Gentile Christians are no longer considered to be Gentiles what are they?

    The children of God.

    HankD
     
  2. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Jews and Gerbils both got saved? :Biggrin
     
  3. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    That's odd indeed.

    HankD
     
  4. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    Then clarify please:

    16 And as many as shall walk by this rule, peace be upon them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God. Gal 6

    Who is Paul referring to by 'the Israel of God'?
     
  5. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    Was Christ being 'metaphorical' here when He referred to this Israelite as an 'Israelite indeed'?:

    47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to him, and saith of him, Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom is no guile! Jn 1

    Was Paul being metaphorical here when he defined the true Jew?:

    29 but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God. Ro 2

    Or are you going to tell me that true Jews are those that have Abraham's DNA?
     
  6. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    No. Paul clearly defines who the circumcision is here. Absolutely no mention of 'the rebirth'.

    More dispy chop suey.
     
  7. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Look K I could answer all your particular questions but I won't.

    I would rather do it in a more general way - The issue with you and I is with our separate views of Paul's literary style.

    Yes The Spirit of God inspired him, however the Spirit of God used the persona of the all who were chosen to pen the scripture. Paul liked using crossover metaphors for comparisons. This is one of them.

    IMO The underlying spiritual message is that redeemed Israel and the church are not separate but distinct from one another sharing many values but different in others yet both institutions represented the kingdom of God on earth both citizen re-borns were the children of God.

    Neither one of us will be satisfied with the back and forth banter and it might end badly and in fact is moving in that direction.

    HankD
     
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  8. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    John of Japan,


    If I posted a link to his article that is ;

    The New Covenant and Christianity

    Why would you ask me this question? Do you think I would post it and be confused?


    Yes of course. That is why I posted it. Do you agree with this man when he says this?
    Christians are not party to the new covenant. The new covenant is not made with the church.
    Do you teach this?
    I do not want you to defend a position if you do not teach it yourself.
    Do you think this is the mainstream dispensational teaching?

    Could you clarify what you mean by extra biblical Covenant?
    Again do you agree with what this man offered on this?
    I believe every Christian is a Covenant theology Christian.
    God is a covenant making and covenant keeping God.
    I want to be able to say with the Psalmist;
    7 Remember not the sins of my youth, nor my transgressions: according to thy mercy remember thou me for thy goodness' sake, O Lord.

    8 Good and upright is the Lord: therefore will he teach sinners in the way.

    9 The meek will he guide in judgment: and the meek will he teach his way.

    10 All the paths of the Lord are mercy and truth unto such as keep his covenant and his testimonies.

    11 For thy name's sake, O Lord, pardon mine iniquity; for it is great.

    12 What man is he that feareth the Lord? him shall he teach in the way that he shall choose.

    13 His soul shall dwell at ease; and his seed shall inherit the earth.

    14 The secret of the Lord is with them that fear him; and he will shew them his covenant.

    So....that is the kind of Covenant theologian I am. Unlike the writer of the article.....I firmly believe that the covenant of redemption is the basis for all of the other covenants. He denies such a covenant exists and seeks to explain it away. I do not. I believe it.
     
  9. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Yeshua1

    I do not think God saves gerbils.....perhaps you meant gentiles:Cautious

    Now...you said gentiles are in the new covenant....this dispensational teacher says;
    Do you believe that???

    :Cautious
     
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  10. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    What you are describing here does not convince me that you know what covenant theology is. I don't have time right now to explain it all to you, but it is an entire system of theology that is not based on the covenants delineated in the Bible, but on two or three (depending on the theologian) covenants invented extra-Biblically. If you can get ahold of Berkhof's systematic theology you can find his version explained there.

    Sayonara for now.
     
  11. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Berkof is the first systematic theology I read. I understand what covenant theology is, and yet I believe Baptists can also have a covenant theology.
    I can read Christian Reformed men, Presbyterians,and still come out a Baptist.....a Reformed Baptist that is. Because I do not stay on the train all the way where they go, does not mean we do not have many things in common.
    When you can.....I would like you to answer the questions I asked you;
    Do you agree with this man when he says this?
    Christians are not party to the new covenant. The new covenant is not made with the church.
    Do you teach this?
    I do not want you to defend a position if you do not teach it yourself.
    Do you think this is the mainstream dispensational teaching?
     
  12. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Here are other articles on this topic;
    This one is loaded with error from start to finish;
    http://4himnet.com/bnyberg/dispensationalism01.html
    Yeshua1,
    Kim R. said;

    In Ephesians 2:11-22, Paul addresses this very point when discussing God’s redemptive purpose for Gentiles and national Israel. Here, Paul flat-out contradicts the dispensational assertion that God has distinct redemptive purposes for national Israel and for the church. According Paul, God’s purpose in the New Covenant is to remove the ethnic distinctions between Jew and Gentile (between Israel and the church) which had been dividing them. Paul says that Jesus came to tear down the barrier wall which formerly divided the two, in order to make the two peoples into one so as to form Jew and Gentile together into the one living temple of the Lord–the church. In this spiritual temple, Christ is the chief cornerstone, and the foundation is the prophets and apostles.

    While dispensationalists will concede that this is God’s purpose for the present age, they say Israel’s distinct role resurfaces again after the Rapture when the Gentile church is removed from the earth. This dual redemptive purpose then carries on throughout the millennial age after Christ comes back. If true, this means that it is Christ’s purpose to make the two peoples one is only temporary. God intends to divide Israel (ethnic Jews) again from the Gentiles after the resurrection (1 Thessalonians 4:13-5:11).

    Of course, this makes no sense whatsoever. In fact, such a view forces us to see the future millennial age as something completely distinct from Christ’s redemptive purpose under the New Covenant. On these terms, the as-yet future millennium marks a return to Old Testament types and shadows and ignores the fact that the reality is Christ. This not only means that redemptive history takes a giant U-turn after Christ comes back, amounting to a return to the types and shadows which preceded the coming of the Messiah, but it completely ignores the very thing Christ came to do–make the two peoples one by removing all ethnic divisions which previously divided believers! The progress of redemption takes us from promise (types and shadows) to fulfillment (anti-types), not from promise, to temporary (or transitional) fulfillment, and then finally back to the types and shadows.
     
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  13. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    What you are asking me to do is read this guy's article, then respond to everything you ask me about him. I'm very sorry, but I simply don't have time right now to do that. I'm teaching a two-week block on History of Missions, and preparing to teach three difficult courses in a 9 week block (Greek 101, Eng. 101, Ch. History).

    See you somewhere down the line.
     
  14. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    I will answer this one point. The covenants of covenant theology are extra-Biblical (not necessarily un-Biblical) because (wait for it), they are delineated nowhere in the Bible.
     
  15. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    References to the Covenant of Grace can be found in various parts of the Bible if one is prepared to look for them as the following examples will show:-

    Luke 22:22. “And truly the Son of Man goes as it has been determined……” Determined where and by whom if not in the Covenant of Grace?

    John 6:38-39. “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.” Christ has been given a people and the task by the Father which He is determined to fulfil. What can this refer to if not the Covenant of Grace?

    John 10:16. “And other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must bring, and they will hear My voice; and there will be one flock and one shepherd.” Not, “I will bring,” but, “I must bring.” Our Lord had been given a commission to fulfil.

    John 10:17-18. “Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father.” Where did Christ receive this command, the doing of which merited so well the Father’s love? In the Covenant of Grace, of course.

    Phil 2:6-8 (my translation). ‘Who, being in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be held onto for His advantage, but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.’ In the Covenant of Grace, our Lord gave up temporarily that equality with the Father that had existed from all eternity, and became the willing servant of Exodus 21:5-6 and Psalm 40:6-8 in order to rescue those who had been given to Him (John 17:2, 6 ).

    Heb 2:13. ‘Here am I and the children whom God has given to Me.’ Given by the Father to the Son in the Covenant of Grace to be redeemed from sin and brought to heaven.

    In Isaiah 42:6, Christ is described as the Covenant itself. He is, in His own Person and work, the very substance of it. In Mal 3:1, He is, ‘The Messenger of the Covenant’ because He came to proclaim it and make it known. In Heb 7:22, He is, ‘The Surety of a better covenant.’ Christ came as the representative of fallen Man, being engaged to fulfil the obligations incurred under the Covenant of Works. In Heb 9:15, He is, ‘The Mediator of the New Covenant’ since He has brought about legal satisfaction between God and man so that covenantal blessings are now imparted to those who had previously forfeited them, and He now stands between the two parties, advocating the cause of man to God (1John 2:1 ) and speaking a word of the comfort of God to the weary man (Isaiah 50:4 ).
     
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  16. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Just an observation Martin: You mention the "Covenant of Grace" several times yet the word "grace" does not appear in any of these passages you give. Just remarking.

    HankD
     
  17. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    Six Hour Warning

    This thread will be closed sometime after 2 pm Pacific.
     
  18. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    I understand......you are pressed for time.....so let's forget this man wrote this for now...
    Another academic type person asks you two questions

    Are gentiles in the new covenant ?

    Is the new Covenant made with....wait for it.......the new Covenant church?
     
  19. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Hello Hank,
    I tend to use the term 'Covenant of Grace' because I used to spend a lot of time over on the Puritan Board and that was the term they tended to use there because it is in the Westminster Confession and the 1689. If you prefer to call it the Everlasting Covenant (Hebrews 13:20) or anything else that takes your fancy, feel free. :)

    'That which we call a rose would smell as sweet
    By any other name.'
     
  20. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Aye, there's the rub. You have to search for such passages. In other words, you have to have a presupposition of a covenant of grace before you even begin your search. Every single passage you referenced depend on that presupposition, rather than strict exegesis. Not a single one of them teaches directly a covenant of grace.

    Berkhof's definition: “The covenant of Grace may be defined as that gracious agreement between the offended God and the offending but elect sinner, in which God promises salvation through faith in Christ, and the sinner accepts this believingly, promising a life of faith and obedience” (Berkhof, p. 277; italics in original). None of the verses you quoted mention such an agreement in any way, shape or form. (And I realize that you apparently have your own definition of the covenant of grace that differs from Berkhof's.)

    When does the sinner make such an agreement with God? Is there even such a covenant? Covenant theologians differ on all of this, some having 3 and some only having 2 covenants in their scheme.
     
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