Greetings Bro Glen! I don't get you question here? You have me out of the context here. Again, you have misquoted Jude 1.4, which does not say what the KJV makes it out to. "ordained" is the wrong translation of the Greek "προγράφω", which literally means, "to write before", from "προ" (before), and "γράφω", "to write". And then "condemnation" is also incorrect, where the Greek is "κρίμα", which here simply means "judgement, decision". The KJV with its Calvinistic slant, sees too much of its "theology" in places that say nothing of it!
There is not a single Scripture that says anyone was ever "ordained to eternal life". I know what Calvinists say, but I am more interested in what the Bible says!
Andy... If you are more interested in what the Bible says, why do Greekify it?... I have KJV and my Bible is in English and I realize that you are a Greek scholar and T.C. is too but T.C. doesn't use his Greek intellectuality to demean other brethren... I have one question and then I'm opting out of here... Why did God honor the cry of the dying martyr William Tyndale?... "God open the eyes of the King of England?"... and every English translation since then was because God answered that cry... If I want to find out what something means in Greek or Hebrew, which I seldom do I will check Strong's or some other Greek and Hebrew scholar but if I really, really want to know what it says I will let scripture interpret scripture... Brother Glen