Well, I suppose your admitting your own inability.Not until you actually answer my question
I typically get 5hat from non-calls.
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Well, I suppose your admitting your own inability.Not until you actually answer my question
You have a point?Uh no not going away from my point. That is called derailing
He can't. He knows it is an illogical question.So, show the more excellent answers.
The teacher does not ask a question of the student that the teacher does not have the answer.He can't. He knows it is an illogical question.
And you are still avoiding the question
I see we have yet another fictional theology thread from Agedman. He claims salvation by grace through our faith is a works based salvation. But scripture is clear, we are saved by grace through faith. Thus our faith in Christ as credited by God provides access to the grace in which we stand. Romans 5:2
No verse says or suggests we are saved by grace, then given faith. That is false theology.
The order of salvation was mentioned. It was implied that the order is not clearly given in scripture.
When did God choose His Redeemer, His Lamb? Before creation or after creation? See 1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was foreknown before creation. Now do you choose a Redeemer without a plan to Redeem? Nope. So before Creation, God had a Redemption plan that included His Redeemer and as a target group, those to be redeemed. So we have the Plan, the Redeemer and then the target group of the Redemption plan, 1, 2 and 3. Ephesians 1:4 supports this view, God chose us corporately (those to be redeemed) when He chose Christ individually to be the Redeemer, thus He chose us in Him.
Paul tells us the Redemption plan included three other features, those redeemed would be holy and blameless before Him, the redeemed would be predestined to adoption (the redemption of our bodies at Christ's second coming - Romans 8:23) and the redeemed are predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, so Christ would be the firstborn of many siblings. (Romans 8:28)/
The above Redemption Plan is presented plainly in scripture, and their should be absolutely no debate.
So, Van, your view is that faith is innate, and must be self generated to some level of acceptability resulting in some offering in which obliges God to credit that person as righteous?
If the Faith is innate, then why does the Scripture declare that faith is linked to hearing the Scriptures? (Romans 10).
If one already posses the faith, then there is no validity in the Scriptures you have given.
Yet another false charge, another misrepresentation, another dodge. No quote will be forthcoming. I said no one comes to Christ unless drawn (attracted not compelled) by the Father. So why the falsehood?
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Both "believe" and "repent" are verbs.Faith and repentence don't resemble any "work" I've ever seen or heard of, or read of in scripture.
Both "believe" and "repent" are verbs.![]()

Faith and repentence don't resemble any "work" I've ever seen or heard of, or read of in scripture.
They are works of God the Holy Spirit wrought in a former sinner's heart. Eph. 2:8-9 reveal that.
My point is that works are, indeed, at work in salvation, but not our works, God's. That is the meaning of Ephesians 2:8-9. Grace, faith, and salvation are all the gift of God. Christ's "work" was His payment for sin through His death on the Cross. This gift is given to those who were chosen (predestined) from eternity (Eph. 1:4). This is only possible if sinful man is utterly sinful, i.e. dead in sin (Eph. 2:1). If sinful man retains any disposition towards good, any moral free agency, then he can claim participation in his own salvation (Synergism).So? Your point is?
8 For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— 9 not by works, so that no one can boast.