Does God Love Every Individual Person in the Same Manner?

Two questions:

1) Are you a Universalist?

2) What's your take on Romans 9?

If you're able to answer either of these questions without childish insults and straw man arguments, it would be greatly helpful.

 

That's like saying a criminal chooses to reject the law and sends himself to jail.

Of course not. It's the judge who judges the criminal and finds him guilty who sends him to jail.

But, according to Finneyism, why wasn't Judas saved? After all, he did all the right things.

 

This is what the Word of God says:

"And Paul and Barnabas spake out boldly, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first be spoken to you. Seeing ye thrust it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of eternal life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles." (Acts 13:46)

By their rejection of the Gospel, these Jews thus JUDGED THEMSELVES unworthy of ETERNAL LIFE, and thereby were DAMNING THEMSELVES to hell! God did not do this, but they did so THEMSELVES!

 

Universal Atonement is 100% Biblical. Universal Salvation is 100% NOT!

What in Romans 9?

 

No, scripture is clear that God is the one who judges, not us.

The passage says that, by rejecting the Word of God, they were judged unworthy of eternal life by their rejection of God's Word, not that they examined themselves and deemed themselves unworthy. That would contradict scripture, which says that every man proclaims his own righteousness.

 

So, if you believe in universal atonement, then why aren't all men saved? Is Christ's atonement ineffective?

It's a chapter in the Bible, located between Romans 8 and Romans 10.

 

What exactly have the parables of Jesus Christ got to do with eternal life? The Bible clearly says that "all things" have been given to Jesus, Who Himself is Almighty God. When Jesus says that He prays for those whom the Father had given Him, if you read the context, He is speaking of His Disciples there. You cannot assume form this that His words here are for all people, of all time!

See what Matthew 13:15 says;

"For this people's heart is waxed gross, And their ears are dull of hearing, And their eyes they have closed; Lest haply they should perceive with their eyes, And hear with their ears, And understand with their heart, And should turn again, And I should heal them."

Interestingly here Jesus does not quote from the Hebrew of Isaiah, but the Greek Septuagint, as Paul does in Acts 28:27, where the action of the "closing of the eyes", is said to be SELF, and not by God. The Greek is very clear on this!

 

you seem to be blind to what the Bible says!

 

show me where is Romans 9 is their ANY support for Calvinism?

 

I know what it says. But, where does it say, that Jesus spoke in parables so that the "non-elect" could not understand and not get saved? Where exactly does it say that His parables were to restrict the salvation of anyone? You are reading too much into what Jesus actually does say!

 

the next verse is 12, "For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that which he hath" Where is salvation mentioned here? Where does it say I use parables so that the non-elect cannot understand and therefore cannot be saved? NOWHERE! I wait for Bible evidence!

 

I wait...

 

You missed the most important part of verse 15, "they have closed their eyes"! It was not because Jesus did not want them not to understand and not get saved, which you guys are trying hard to find in the Bible, But THEY CLOSED THEIR EYES to the Truth! Paul says the same in 2 Thessalonians 2:10, "They perish because they refused to love the truth and so be saved". Stick to the Word and be safe!

 

OK, so you have cut and pasted from Romans 9, what of it? spell it out!