Which is better, the NKJV or the Niv 2011?

not really, the 1984 NIV is quite good. And the Message is probably the worst

 

I disagree on the NIV simply because it is dynamic equivalent. I do not like nor trust that method.

 

not for all passages, though. In Philippians 2:6-8, they use the correct English phrase for μορφῇ, which is "very nature", which removes any confusion with "form", which some argue is "external" (Thayer), and others, "internal" (Gifford).

 

I want nothing to do with it and warn all my church members against it.

 

wow, are you NKJV, KJV?

 

No I am currently using the ESV.

 

ESV has the wrong readings for 1 Timothy 3:16 and 1 John 5:7, NKJV is far better IMHO

 

who are they?

 

my personal research, http://www.trinitystudies.org/Jesus/1tim316.pdf; http://www.trinitystudies.org/Trinity/1jn5.6-10.pdf

 

no

 

I mean KJVO group

 

Not a textual decision, but last year I read Bruce Metzger claim that the pericope adulterae was not referenced by any church father prior to the 12th century (A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, Hendrickson Publishers, 2005, 188) -- when even I, who doesn't claim to be an expert at anything, could discover that was wrong.

 

TRKJVlover, I see this is your second post, so...
welcome to the Baptist Board!

 

Yes. Interesting are the facts though. The oldest surviving Greek manuscript that does contain the passage, is of the 5th century, the Codex D. However, in the 4th century, the textual scholar, Jerome, said that it was found in "many Greek and Latin manuscripts", which no doubt are lost, or were destroyed in the fire when the library was burnt in I think the 5th or 6th century. Metzger was/is overrated as a textual scholar.