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Featured Martyn Lloyd-Jones on Romans 5:1

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Martin Marprelate, Dec 9, 2018.

  1. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    'Therefore we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ.'

    "......Apart from justification, apart from that which has been done for us in and through the Lord Jesus Christ, there is no peace between God and man. There is no peace either on God's side or on man's side, 'for the wrath of God is against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men.' We should never forget that, but mankind is always very ready to forget it. That is why so many by-pass the Lord Jesus Christ and all His work. That is why so many pray to God without ever mentioning the Lord Jesus Christ. they see no need of Him. They say, 'God is love' and believe that they can go to God directly just as they are. That is a complete denial of the Christian faith. It is the result of the failure to see that there is no peace between them and God even from God's side, and that the wrath of God is on them because of their ungodliness and unrighteousness. Before there can be peace between God and man, and man and God, something has to happen with respect to the wrath of God, which is a revealed fact.

    The Apostle has already told us what has happened, in chapter 3, verses 24-26: 'Being justified freely by His grace through the propitiation that is in Christ Jesus, whom God set forth to be a propitiation through faith in His blood, to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; to declare, I say, at this time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of him that believeth in Jesus.' As we have seen, the great problem confronting the mind of God was this: how can God at one and the same time forgive a sinner and remain just and righteous and eternally the same? The answer is that God has sent His Son into the world, and has 'set Him forth' as a 'propitiation' for our sins. That means that He laid our sins upon Him and poured out His wrath against sin upon the Lord Jesus Christ. It is only because He has done that, that God can look upon us with favour and reconcile us unto Himself. This had to happen before the wrath of God could be appeased and He could look upon us and deal with us in a new way. The Apostle asserts here that, in the light of what has happened in Christ, who was 'delivered for our offenses and raised again for our justification,' as far as God is concerned, the wrath is no longer there, and He is at peace with all 'that believe in Jesus."

    [from Romans: Exposition of Chapter 5: Assurance. Published by Banner of Truth, 1971]
     
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  2. Rob_BW

    Rob_BW Well-Known Member
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    The Prince of Peace.
     
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  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Now THAT is the way to preach the Gospel message of the Cross, and he understood PST !
     
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  4. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Grief upon grief. As if the op really expressed the actual presentation of either the blood or the wrath of God!


    Either one must embrace that John 3 and 1 John 2 are lies, or twist the Scriptures into some human scheme of limited blood, insufficient blood, or partial particular blood, or one must embraces the fullness of the teaching of the blood, and recognizes that wrath is removed by faith in which God places into the redeemed hearts yet such wrath remains upon the unbeliever for they remain unreconciled (John 3:36).

    Those who embrace “limited atonement” have limited their own understanding in order to conform to a system that is correct except in this single area of the Scriptures distinguished use of blood and wrath.

    There is no lack of blood atonement shed once for all sin.

    There is a chasm difference between blood and wrath. They are not joined, but two separate issues as Peter shows declaring, “For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit;...”

    Blood for all, but not all does He bring to God.

    If John and Peter declares it true, why is there such foolish human invention to deny that truth?

    Why could Paul declare the message of reconciliation to ALL? Because Christ shed the blood once FOR ALL sin. The sin issue is no longer the chasm between ?God and humankind. Yet, not all are given the “right to become the sons of God.” It isn’t the lack of atonement blood, not being reconciled is the lack of the God given capacity to believe.

    God chooses from all who are already condemned those in whom He delights to redeem.

    Blood did NOT remove wrath. Throughout Scripture blood was shed as to open the door to reconciliation. Christ IS the door. Through Him is reconciliation. The blood was not the door. He is the door.

    I could go on for days pointing out Scripture principles given throughout the pictures and statements of the Old and New Testament.

    Wouldn’t make a difference because some cling to the lie of human invention rather than looking at that beautiful mercy and truth of Scripture.
     
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  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Did God intend the death of Jesus to save all, or to save some?
     
  6. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Dear Agedman, I have no wish to cause you grief. You will observe that the O.P. is not my work, but that of someone far more able than I.
    John 3:36. 'He who believes in the Son has everlasting life, and He who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on Him.' Amen! I'm not sure why you would think that I have any problem with that. So I preach most regularly. But the wrath is removed by Christ: 'He is the propitiation for our sins........' (1 John 2:2) God is propitiated in respect of 'our' sins by the death of Christ. So we immediately have to ask, for whom did Christ die? For if He died for all, then God is propitiated towards all and all are saved. '.......and not for ours only, but for the whole world.' Yet God is not propitiated towards the whole world as John 3:36 tells us. So, whether you like it or not, we have a limited atonement.

    We can agree that God is propitiated only towards believers. John 3:36 tells us that. But what is this 'whole world'? It is Jew and Gentile, male and female, rich and poor, slave and free; men and women 'of all nations, tribes, peoples and tongues' (Revelation 7:9). But it is not every single person.

    Matthew 1:21. '.....And you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.' It does not say 'He will save believers,' though that is true; it says He will save 'His people' and that is a theme that comes up mostly, but not exclusively, in John.
    John 6:37. 'All that the Father gives Me will come to Me.....'
    John 6:39. 'This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose none......'
    John 10:26. 'But you do not believe because you are not of My sheep.....' Note that He does not say, "You are not of My sheep because you do not believe."
    John 10:27ff. 'My sheep hear My voice........and I give them eternal life.......My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all.....'
    John 17:2. 'As You have given Him authority over all flesh, that He should give eternal life to as many as you have given Him.
    Matthew 11:27. 'All things have been delivered to Me by My Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father. Nor does anyone know the Father except the Son and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him.

    So there is a people whom the Father has given to the Son, and the Son has ransomed them at measureless cost by propitiating the Father's righteous anger against them on account of their sins.
    I understand that you believe that, but you are far from having proved it.
    I can agree with that, but 'all sin' means 'all manner of sin.'
    If your interpretaion is correct, it contradicts the texts I have quoted above. But in fact Peter tells us, '[Christ] Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree.....' (1 Peter 2:24). He didn't bear everyone's sins, just those of the ones whom God gave Him to redeem. He bore their sins, and the curse laid upon them and paid the penalty for them in full.
    I'm sorry, but they don't declare true what you think they do.
    Because that's the Gospel. 'All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will by no means cast out.' All may come! The gates of heaven are wide open. Christ will cast no one out. But when people come, it is because God has loved them from eternity, given them to the Son to redeem and drawn them to Himself with lovingkindness. What a wonderful Gospel! :)
     
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  7. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Christ’s death and resurrection never intended to “save all.”

    There is a difference between blood shed and dead of crucifixion.

    I am assuming you think the shedding of blood resulted in Christ’s death and therefore salvation is limited to only those for which God shed His blood.

    That is no place taught in the Scriptures.

    Most criminals who were crucified were also beaten, shedding blood, but that shed blood was not that of the pure spotless lamb.

    Christ’s blood was shed for the sin just as Scripture states. There would have been no forgiveness of sin without the shedding of blood.

    Criminals crucified died not from blood loss, but asphyxiation - by being no longer capable of exhaling (hence the breaking of legs).

    The blood was shed for all. The death and resurrection were for redemption authority.

    There is no “sin barrier” but that lack of reconciliation because of human obstinance abides in the unbeliever.

    God must “add to the church those who were to be saved” (Acts 2) or none would be redeemed. “God gives them the right to be His children” not by blood, but by adoption.

    One who does not believe is “condemned already” not from a lack of sufficient blood, but the inability to believe - to have that faith God gives.

    “Christ died for the ungodly” cannot be separated from “while we were yet sinners”. Which came first the shedding of blood or the death for sinners?

    The shedding of blood was for the sin issue, and the death and resurrection for sinners’ redemption
     
  8. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Perhaps you would be correct if “propitiation” was not limited to specifically the blood as John uses it and the furniture as Paul uses the word.

    Because the blood is distinctly for all creation, as shown by Peter, John and Paul, yet redemption is limited (as your post of Scriptures demonstrates), then it remains that redemption is certainly limited to those given to believe and not by blood shedd

    Are not the Scriptures clear in separating the work of blood from the work of redemption?

    “Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sin”

    Yet, forgiveness of sin does not oblige eternal redemption. For the issue of sin and obstinacy both had to be addressed

    Such redemption is the removing the obstinacy of unbelief found in being reconciled to God as you present Scriptures; and showing such redemption is totally of the gift of God, not of human attainment, achievement, status, fleshly desire ...

    It is redemption that is limited, not the blood.

    That gives the writers the freedom to allow “all” to be most certainly “for us and the whole world” and also allow the writers to state clearly “the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved.”
     
  9. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    1 John 2:2. 'And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins.' He Himself; body broken, blood shed.
    As for 'furniture,' you've got me beaten there. Confused I have no idea what you mean. Explain it to me and I'll deal with that and the rest of your post.
     
    #9 Martin Marprelate, Dec 12, 2018
    Last edited: Dec 12, 2018
  10. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    I do not see at all that the Scriptures separate the work of blood from that of redemption.
    First of all, I think you are reading too much into the word 'blood.' The blood signifies death. 'For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes atonement for your souls' (Leviticus 17:11). The life is in the blood; when the sacrifice was slain, its blood was poured out to show that it was dead.

    On the day of the first Passover, it was not enough to sprinkle some of the lamb's blood on the lintel; the animal had to be killed, roasted with bitter herbs and eaten. It made atonement for the Israelites who were due the same penalty as the Egyptians because they had participated in the idolatry of the Egyptians (Ezekiel 20:4-10). Every Israelite firstborn child thereafter had to be redeemed with a lamb with had to be killed, sacrificed (Exodus 13:11-16).

    This applies to the Passover Supper in Mark 14:22-24. 'And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, blessed and broke it, and gave it to them and said, "Take, eat; this is My body." Then He took the cup, and when He had given thanks, He gave it to them, and they all drank from it.
    And He said, "This is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed
    [literally 'poured out.' Gk. ekchuno] for many."' So, whereas the old Passover focused on the body and blood of a lamb slain as a penal substitutionary sacrifice to redeem the Israelites, the Lord's Supper speaks of the broken body and shed blood of the Saviour who died as a penal substitute for His people.
    I agree with you that redemption is totally the gift of God, but those whom Christ has redeemed are also sanctified (set apart) by the Holy Spirit, and are given new birth.
    The blood is not limited. The redemption that is in Christ is perfectly sufficient to save all those who come to Him.
    Yet the Bible states very clearly that Christ laid down His life for His sheep (John 10:11) and that none of those sheep shall ever perish (John 10:28). You are misunderstanding the Bible's use of the word 'all.' We can go into this more deeply if you wish.
    Why on earth would you think that? Christ died because 'He gave up His Spirit' (John 19:30). No one can kill God. In the O.T.sacrifices, the animal was slain and then its blood poured out. This is what happened to our Lord (John 19:34-35). There is a medical reason why water came out with the blood, but it symbolizes the water of life flowing from the redemption that is in Christ Jesus.
    I have never used the term 'sin barrier' in my life, but surely obstinacy is a sin? God overcomes obstinacy by opening the heart to receive Christ.
     
  11. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    None of the above is disagreement. It is sound in the presentation.


    Certainly, I totally agree that the blood is not limited. It is for the "Whole World" as John pointed out. Again 1 John 2:2 clearly distinguishes between the believer and the rest of the world and states that the Blood of Christ was the propitiation for all. "He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world."

    John was not given to exaggeration, and "the whole world" (in any language) is all inclusive. It is NOT limited to a subset of the whole. I am thankful that you agree.

    Certainly, He laid down HIS LIFE for His sheep. That is what you are missing. He laid His life down, a totally separate issue from the blood shed.

    Martin, the cross was NOT designed to shed blood. Forensic science teaches that the Roman execution on a cross was designed in such a manner as to preserve the life that the torturousness could continue until the person could no longer lift themselves to exhale.

    The blood was shed in the garden, the temple, the halls of justice, the streets. The blood was shed for all. But the death was not from blood loss. It was Christ laying down His life for His own as you also agree in your next paragraph.

    By your own admission, you design the scriptures in such a manner as to attempt to limit the blood to a subset. But, the original language has no such limit even hinted, but does in fact carry the fullest expression of the whole creation.

    Why then does the whole creation remain "condemned already" - because it and they are not given to believe (faith).

    At the final judgment the old creation passes away because it has no capacity to believe. The fallen angels are cast into eternal flames for they have no capacity to believe. Those who are not are cast into eternal flames because they are not recorded as having been given life. The final judgment is NOT about blood, it is about life given because of the death of Christ - believers have passed from death unto life because of Christ's victory, not because of blood shed for sins.

    look at this Hebrews passage to help understand how you and I differ: Hebrews 10:

    8When he said above, “You have neither desired nor taken pleasure in sacrifices and offerings and burnt offerings and sin offerings” (these are offered according to the law), 9then he added, “Behold, I have come to do your will.” He does away with the first in order to establish the second. 10And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

    11And every priest stands daily at his service, offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. 12But when Christ had offered for all time a single sacrifice for sins, he sat down at the right hand of God, 13waiting from that time until his enemies should be made a footstool for his feet. 14For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified.

    The single blood sacrifice took place at the crucifixion. It was slathered from the Garden to the tomb (for while still hanging dead, the guard pierced His side). Yet, does not the those "who are being sanctified" indicate an ongoing work? His death and resurrection providing the completed work of perfection for all time those redeemed?

    The writer of Hebrews continues, and careful reading shows the consistency of what I am presenting as the blood for all, the death and resurrection for the redeemed.

    It is because of Christ's blood that the veil is torn (no more a partition) and access to the thrown of God is now available (that is the offer of reconciliation can be made by the preaching of Scriptures). However, it is "by the new and living way that he opened for us through the curtain, that is, through his flesh, that "We" (the redeemed) have a great high priest.

    The distinguishing factor is not the blood, but that Christ remains the door, the access, that was gained by His death and resurrection.

    We can agree. Yet, the symbolism is not the total atonement picture as you well know.


    Is obstinacy always a sin? Cannot the believer be obstinate in contending for the faith, and in living by principle?
     
  12. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus had to die upon that Cross, and shed His blood there, as that was prophecied in the OT concerning the Suffering Servant of Yahweh, so his manner of death and that His blood would be poured out on that Cross had to be met... Jesus death by heart attack, being ran over and trampled by horses would not have qualified!
     
  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    For prophecy to be fulfilled, Jesus MUST die upon that Cross, and MUST have his blood shed for atonement for sin!
     
  14. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Can you state were in the OT that it states that the shed blood of Christ had to be on the cross?

    Or even that Christ had to suffer and die on a cross, and not just on anything that lifted him up?

    The suffering stated in the OT was not limited to the cross, nor was the blood. For even the atonement lamb in which the blood was collected bled on out on the ground before the population of Israel.

    So, the death of Christ, the resurrection of Christ, the blood of Christ were all different aspects portrayed and in prophecies of the OT.

    For example: "As Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so must the Son of Man be lifted up.

    Was the snake on an actual cross? No. But the snake was lifted up, and so was the Christ.

    Do not diminish the impact of the blood, nor the portrayal of the blood splattered from the garden, through the halls of the temple, through the halls of justice, and even before the people on the road to Calvary. The blood was shed for all, not just Adam and Eve, but to those who would rely upon religion, to those seeking to justify themselves, to the social structures of society, and finally upon the cross as a mixture of water and blood showing that death had already occurred.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus HAD to die just as he did for God to accept His sacrifice!
     
  16. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    That is not in dispute.
    The crucifixion of Christ is not in dispute.

    What I pointed out was the elemental aspects of the crucifixion resolve various basic issues.

    Issues in which some (as on this thread have shown) lump all together causing a confusion with the Scripture presentation.
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    If somehow Jesus blood stayed in his veins, would not have worked!
     
  18. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    I'm not certain what you are attempting to refute that I have posted.

    Did I post that The Lord did not bleed?

    Have I not clearly stated that most certainly the Lord shed His blood?

    Just not certain what you are attempting to present, or are you in agreement with what I have presented?
     
  19. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Christ absolutely had to hang upon a tree. Why? So that He could become a curse for us Galatians 3:10-14, which quotes Deuteronomy 27:26 & 21:23, explains it pretty well, as does 1 Peter 2:24. And Luther goes even further: 'Paul therefore doth very well allege this general sentence out of Moses, as concerning Christ: "Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree." But Christ hath hanged upon a tree, therefore Christ is accursed of God" [Luther on the Epistle to the Galatians on 3:13]. I would not phrase it quite like that. I would sooner say that Christ bore our curse on the cross (or tree) and God punished our sins and expiated the curse in Him (c.f. Galatians 2:20). You say that a cross is not a real tree? Argue it out with Paul and Peter.
    So did the Lamb of God (John 19:34-35. Notice the very definite affirmation in v.35. The Holy Spirit wants it to be known that Christ is indeed our Passover Lamb (c.f. 1 Corinthians 5:7).
    The death and the blood are all one: the sacrificial death of the Lamb. The resurrection is indeed something different. It was the sign that the sacrifice was accepted.
    The snake was presumably nailed to a wooden pole (no superglue and no aluminium in those days). The snake symbolized Satan and was a figure of Christ made sin and cursed for us. That is why Hezekiah burned it when people started worshiping it (2 Kings 18:4).
    But the blood is of no effect unless the sacrifice dies.
     
  20. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    We are not in agreement. If Christ is the propitiation for the sins of every person in the world, then God is propitiated towards every person in the world and will be propitious to them. This is evidently not the case. But the Greek does not say that Christ is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world. Check it out.
    As for 'the whole world' being all-inclusive, check out, for example, Romans 1:8.
     
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