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The 1 Day and the 1000 Years

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by John of Japan, Feb 28, 2019.

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  1. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    yes complete with symbolic fleas :Biggrin
     
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  2. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    john,
    . your last name is Himes? is Andrew your brother?
     
  3. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    The point is, God is master of time, while not Himself being bound by it. Thus, He can set periods of time and time limits for man. And I believe the 1k years is LITERAL, as it's been pointed out, it's mentioned in Scripture several times.

    And, while prets insist the eschatological prophecies have already been fulfilled because "soon" & "shortly" are applied to them, we must remember that God is master of time, not vice versa, and that HE sets time periods & limits as HE chooses.

    The FACT that the eschatological events have NOT yet occurred should be convincing to prets that their doctrine is incorrect, but, unfortunately, they generally choose to believe their gurus over Scripture, history, and reality.
     
  4. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    For the record I believe the 1 day and 1000 years in Peter are literal. Also the 1000 years in Rev.
    I believe God cares about time witch he established, down to the nano second.
    Question? Were the three days and three nights literal? How literal?
    What about and the evening and the morning were the first day. The sun I do not believe was measuring time at that time, There was the light, that good and there was the darkness. Day and night. How much time? I am going to go with twelve hours of each, down to the nano second.
    I wonder how close to absolute equinox, for the latitude of Jerusalem, the death and resurrection was, in the year it took place?
     
  5. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Tell me again, what year was it that Jesus came?
    Do the Preterists have it boiled down to year month day?
     
  6. Covenanter

    Covenanter Well-Known Member
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    Had you read my answers you would have seen my (the) answer to your OP.
     
  7. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Yep, that would be me.
     
  8. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Fair enough.
     
  9. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    I am still going to use the argument that the following verses

    Psalm 90:4 For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night.
    2 Peter 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.

    as a counter to the complaint of those who say "Where is the promise of his coming?"

    Oh wait!

    BTW after my extensive most current research adventure, I have retained and even strengthened my view of "things to come hereafter" as :

    The rapture (harpazo), pretribulational, premillenial. Because this view is the best view to fulfill Jesus words

    "of that day and hour knoweth no man,"

    Also, no sign or historical event is required for His pretribulation coming to snatch away His Bride. e.g The rebuilding of the temple in Jerusalem, (yes it might happen before He comes for us just as the rebirth of Israel in one day in 1948 but is NOT NECESSARY as many of these things can or could have been completed IN/DURING the Tribulation).

    I do however also believe the following is yet to happen in its FULLEST impact:

    1 Peter 4:17 For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God?

    I believe we should prepared brethren. If there is something coming approaching the definition of a "sign" it is Peter's warning of our judgement via the inspired word of God
     
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  10. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    As was pointed out, "thousand years" is mentioned six times, so in the case of the "millenium", it's literal.
     
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  11. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    And in Revelation 20 of those 6 places the definite article (Translated as "the" thousand years) is used 3 times - that alone making a very strong case for a literal thousand years).
     
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  12. Covenanter

    Covenanter Well-Known Member
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    As John has accepted that my assertion -

    we can further discuss Peter's day/years.

    I consider that the way Peter is using day/years is what we would call a "saying" or "proverb" like "a miss is as good as a mile" or "hunger is the best sauce."

    The time element is that the scoffers were soon to face the truth of Jesus' destruction prophecy, while believers must live in the light of Jesus final coming for resurrection & judgment. It's worth waiting for, though you may have to wait a thousand years. We have a NH&NE to look forward to.

    Because of the teaching of two comings - for the imminent destruction & the final coming - it is possible to see the day as the destruction & the thousand years as the time until the final coming, both periods being indefinite - short & long - but I don't think that is the way Peter is writing. We can work too hard to interpret a simple expression.

    The message is clear - "be ready to meet Jesus - for final judgment or glory."
     
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  13. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    In case someone has not figured this thread out, my purpose here is to undercut "spiritualizing" this passage and Rev. 20. I see no sane, linguistic way to make any passage of Scripture figurative ("metaphorical," "allegorical, "spiritual") without specifying the particular figure of speech used in the passage.

    In linguistics, figures of speech are generally limited in scope. Here is a linguistic definition of "figure of speech"--"Ancient term for any form of expression in which the normal use of language is manipulated, stretched, or altered for rhetorical effect" (Matthews, op cit, 138). Note that a figure of speech is for rhetorical effect. In other words, whole passages cannot be figurative, but only limited expressions.

    For a whole passage or chapter to be metaphorical, the document itself must be an allegory, like Pilgrim's Progress. However, unfortunately for you allegorical interpreters out there, it is impossible for the book of Revelation to be an allegory. Why? It talks about Jesus all through it! If Revelation isa allegory, what or who does Jesus represent? Hmm?

    I rest my case.
     
  14. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    This must remain purely opinion unless you can produce other documents from the 1st century showing this statement. In the case of Paul's statement about the Cretians in Titus 1:12, the statement has been found in secular authors, so it is definitely a proverb.

    So far so good.

    No, the day is a day and the years are years. There is no indication in the text that they are figures of speech. Before you said they were not figures of speech, but now you are saying "the day is destruction" and "the thousand years...the time until the final coming." Make up your mind.

    Okay.
     
  15. Covenanter

    Covenanter Well-Known Member
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    It is common to mention something for the first time as "a thing" & then speak of it as "the thing." I don't think the premil case is supported by that use of "the."

    At the risk of the thread going off-topic I would say this -

    The Old Covenant Scriptures have much to say, both of a glorious future for Israel, & dreadful judgments for persistent disobedience, the judgments being recorded in Scripture between brief periods of peace & blessing. The prophets look forward to Messiah implementing the glorious future. Jesus affirmed that prophecy referred to himself, (Luke 24.) as did Peter at Pentecost, when the New Covenant "holy nation" was born in one day. (Exo. 19:6, 1 Peter 2:9)

    We are therefore living in a period in which the holy nation of Israel, comprising Jews & Gentiles is being called out of a sinful world from which it (we) suffers tribulation while awaiting the return of Jesus for final resurrection & judgment. That will happen as surely as did the prophesied destruction before the passing of the generation that persistently rejected its Messiah.

    It is an observed FACT that the destruction judgment occurred within the prophesied time period, while the final coming has been awaited for nearly 2,000 years. Is that the millennium or simply an indefinite time that Jesus prophesied at the end of his Olivet prophecy in Mat. 24?

    Is the binding of Satan absolute, resulting in a sinless earth? Or is it for a specific purpose - that the nations should no longer be deceived? Remember the very first promise to Abram counted in "all families on earth?" If Satan had been annihilated after the fall, man would have continued in sin without further Satanic temptation. We sin without specific temptation - do we love God with all our hearts, soul, mind & strength, & our neighbours as ourselves? No. The binding of Satan allows man to continue in rebellion against a holy God & against his redeemed people.

    In the "millennium" John sees the SOULS of the faithful martyrs reigning with Christ. The are enjoying the first resurrection - but it is not a bodily resurrection - SOULS. Jesus in John 5:24-30 speaks of conversion as a resurrection, which he contrasts with the resurrection from the graves at the last day.

    I believe therefore that we are living through the millennium, which, as Peter points out is not a definite period, but a time for repentance & salvation before Jesus final coming for resurrection & judgment.
     
  16. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    The former assistant editor for The Sword under Curtis Hudson. Is now our Pastor , John Reynolds
    Small world
     
  17. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Yes, Jesus will rule the earth, complete with mortals, for 1K years before Satan is released from the abyss & incites one last rebellion against Him by people. After that's dealt with, & the Great White Throne judgment is done, Jesus will step aside so His Father may be all in all, & he will remake earth's surface & send down the New Jerusalem. God has had that plan in place for a long time.
     
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  18. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    No, the millenium won't start til Jesus returns.
     
  19. OnlyaSinner

    OnlyaSinner Well-Known Member
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    I think the Holy Spirit meant the times cited in Psalm 90 and 2 Peter 3 to be literal times, and that both passages are illustrations - of the fact that, while God chooses to work within time, He is not bound by it. (I don't think "illustration" is a figure of speech, but could well be wrong.)
    Having said that, I'm not sure how much the literalness (or otherwise) of those passages has relevance to the 1,000 years in Rev. 20. The earlier passages are descriptions through illustration, the latter prophecy. In Revelation that 1,000 is repeated numerous times and there are a number of specific events described as occurring during that time, lending a lot of weight (to me) to the literalness of the 1,000 year prophecy.
     
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  20. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Tell him I said hi. :)
     
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