My Stance and Does God Want Everyone Saved

@Steven Yeadon all of those verses have been dealt with ad nauseum in these forums by Calvinists. It comes down to the context of each verse. For example, Romans 11:32 this is not talking about all as in every individual person. Remember, Romans is about showing Christ for both Jew and Gentile. So all is all types of people, not individual people.

2 Peter 3:9 is talking about the beloved. Not wishing that any of the beloved should perish. He is patient toward "you" well who is the "you" in this verse? That is who he is writing to and he is writing to the elect. So all, again, is not every individual. Especially since the broader passage is talking about destroying the wicked.

I could go on, but you get the idea.

 

God has never purposed to save every person ever born.

 

Agreed

 

The judgments of God protecting the Godly line, show His purpose has never changed at all.
A Covenant keeping God is faithful to Himself.

11 And we desire that every one of you do shew the same diligence to the full assurance of hope unto the end:

12 That ye be not slothful, but followers of them who through faith and patience inherit the promises.

13 For when God made promise to Abraham, because he could swear by no greater, he sware by himself,

14 Saying, Surely blessing I will bless thee, and multiplying I will multiply thee.

15 And so, after he had patiently endured, he obtained the promise.

16 For men verily swear by the greater: and an oath for confirmation is to them an end of all strife.

17 Wherein God, willing more abundantly to shew unto the heirs of promise the immutability of his counsel, confirmed it by an oath:

18 That by two immutable things, in which it was impossible for God to lie, we might have a strong consolation, who have fled for refuge to lay hold upon the hope set before us:

19 Which hope we have as an anchor of the soul, both sure and stedfast, and which entereth into that within the veil;

20 Whither the forerunner is for us entered, even Jesus, made an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.

 

scripture?

 

Hello Hank
How did the flood assist in the saving of the world of the ungodly?
How did the fire and brimstone help promote salvation of the Sodomites?
Did the confusion of the languages and scattering of the people assist in salvation?
When God commanded the destruction of the heathen nations by the Israelites, as we are told th e land vomit them out,lev18....how did that show a desire to save all men?

 

Proverbs 16:4 The LORD hath made all things for himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil.

 

I am unconvinced that these verses, taken in isolation, actually show that God requires the salvation of anyone. They merely state that God does not take pleasure in destroying the wicked (which does not mean that a Holy and a Just God will not destroy ALL who sin for their wickedness.) It places the blame for the wickedness of men on the sinful acts of men rather than as the desire of God.

To read into this that God desires all men to be saved seems to go beyond what is actually said.

So what prevents God from making salvation by grace through faith the gift to all and saving all from Hell, if that is God’s desire?

 

Indeed.

Charles Spurgeon rebuked those Calvinists who'd tried to contort that Scripture to fit their grand scheme:

re: I Timothy 2

"What then? Shall we try to put another meaning into the text than that which it fairly bears? I trow not. You must, most of you, be acquainted with the general method in which our older Calvinistic friends deal with this text. "All men," say they, —"that is, some men": as if the Holy Ghost could not have said "some men" if he had meant some men. "All men," say they; "that is, some of all sorts of men": as if the Lord could not have said "all sorts of men" if he had meant that. The Holy Ghost by the apostle has written "all men," and unquestionably he means all men. I know how to get rid of the force of the "alls" according to that critical method which some time ago was very current, but I do not see how it can be applied here with due regard to truth. I was reading just now the exposition of a very able doctor who explains the text so as to explain it away; he applies grammatical gunpowder to it, and explodes it by way of expounding it. I thought when I read his exposition that it would have been a very capital comment upon the text if it had read, "Who will not have all men to be saved, nor come to a knowledge of the truth."Had such been the inspired language every remark of the learned doctor would have been exactly in keeping, but as it happens to say, "Who will have all men to be saved," his observations are more than a little out of place. My love of consistency with my own doctrinal views is not great enough to allow me knowingly to alter a single text of Scripture. I have great respect for orthodoxy, but my reverence for inspiration is far greater. I would sooner a hundred times over appear to be inconsistent with myself than be inconsistent with the word of God. I never thought it to be any very great crime to seem to be inconsistent with myself, for who am I that I should everlastingly be consistent? But I do think it a great crime to be so inconsistent with the word of God that I should want to lop away a bough or even a twig from so much as a single tree of the forest of Scripture. God forbid that I should cut or shape, even in the least degree, any divine expression. So runs the text, and so we must read it, "God our Saviour; who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth."" —Charles Spurgeon, "Salvation By Knowing the Truth"

 

Steven, let me add another element that I wrestled with. God is omnipotent and omniscient. So, God has the ability to influence every person as much as necessary to bring them to salvation and He knows exactly how much influence each person needs to bring them to salvation.

So, all that He wants to be saved will be saved.

Peace to you

 

Except you have yet to show one actual verse that states God desires every individual person to be saved. How do you reconcile that stance with Sodom and Gomorrah or with the flood? God destroyed those people. If he desired them to be saved why would he not withhold His wrath? What about Pharaoh?

 

All of us deserve eternal Hell, so the Grace of god has provided for some of us to get redeemed and go to heaven!
Either its the will of God that all would get saved, or some, for anything else would make Him no longer God in his attributes!

 

Ezekiel does not refer at all to a spiritual condition/situation, as it I sonly addressing physical death penalty.

 

Ok, you have just shown an inconsistency. You don't want to use reasoning when it supports Calvinism, but you use it when it supports what you want to be true.