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Featured Two principle NT issues.

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by 37818, Mar 1, 2020.

  1. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    No problem. Happy I could help.
     
  2. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    Thanks. My apparatus was wrong here (Swanson). Thanks for the correction.
    Usually dated paleographically to the eighth/ninth centuries; the latest editions (e.g. NA27) date it to the ninth/tenth centuries. Perhaps my information was dated.NT Manuscripts - Uncials
    Perhaps the earlier dating was correct.

    Not at all. All of those 14 manuscripts had ancestors that they copied from, going back at least to the 8th century. And their ancestors go back even further, not even giving a hint they knew the reading "God". With the exception of 33 and L its reading has all but disapeared from history. The Byzantine text has been know since at least Westcott/Hort to have dominated since the 4th century onwards, as attested by later dated manuscripts, all of whom had ancestors that were copied from earlier manuscripts. There are 3000 plus Gospel manuscripts, hardly anyone copied from another, but they all had independant ancestors. With the exception of Egypt, I doubt the reading was ever hardly known. Looking at the surviving witnesses, it looks like "Son" always dominated the manuscripts, with the exception of Egypt.

    According to Hort, the Byzantine Text became to dominate from the 4th century onwards, well before Islam, and didn't Egyptian Churches still survive even until this day? Didn't they keep copying manuscripts at Saint Catherine's monastery ?





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  3. Garrett20

    Garrett20 Member

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    Very informative. Thank you. I prefer the Byzantine text in general but especially at John 1.18. I’ve come to the opposite conclusion here and regard ‘only begotten Son’ as likely the original. John uses it elsewhere and nowhere else is monogenes theos used. He uses the title Son of God all throughout his writings. As you mentioned, modern versions are split as to which is original.

    The NKJV is an excellent version (my primary version)but I do agree the NET has some excellent notes regarding textual issues as well. I prefer have the Byzantine Textform represented in the body of the text.
     
  4. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I like the formal translations, regardless of source texts, as like to use both Nkjv and Nas!
     
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  5. Garrett20

    Garrett20 Member

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    Good question, but I often ask myself- how many manuscripts do we no longer have from that time? I certainly do not want to base any textual decisions on only old, surviving copies simply because they’re old. We can’t be so sure as to how reliable these surviving copies are. I know modern text critics take into account other factors such as the writings of the early church fathers but sometimes these are not direct quotations but summaries.
     
  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    So the NKJV NU and M footnotes have no importance to you.
     
  7. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    The Muslims turned into a Mosque when the moved in. So no. I doubt Muslims would keep copying Christian scriptures. They destroy them in fact.
    It wasn't handed back to Christians until the 20th century.

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  8. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I really like them, as they help to show me when the CT/MT disagree from the TR text!
     
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  9. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    None. Two 5th century mss though. A and (W).
     
  10. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    How do you know that? Why no ancestor prior to 8th century? That is a long way from the middle and late first century.

    No, the Byztaine started growing then. Until the 8th-9th century the Byzantine would not be able to lay claim of majority text. Muslims helped make it the majority when they burned thousands of Christan writings in the conquests which went all the way to France.

    The vast majority are like....what like 90% or greater are from 10th century and after.

    It was known in Caesarea, France, Cyprus and Italy. Basil, Irenaus, Jerome , Eusebius, Hilary, Origen, Gregory-Nyssa, Epiphanius, Ptolemy, Valentinus all knew of it.....plus many others.













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  11. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    Note the "sup" that goes with Wsup. The "sup" indicates a reading added by a scribe at a later date.

    Also the reading is unique:
    εἱ μὴ ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός (“except the only begotten Son”).
     
    #51 Origen, Mar 3, 2020
    Last edited: Mar 3, 2020
  12. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    W reading of was supplied later. Can't really call that a 5th century reading. The Gospel of John 1:1-5:11 was replaced in W in the 7th century

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  13. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    I found a pics of manuscript 33. There is no doubt 33 reads ο μονογενης θ̅ς̅ (underlined in red below).

    I don't know how many of you know Greek or even the Greek alphabet so this will prove difficult for many to see.

    Screen Shot 2020-03-03 at 3.29.50 PM.png
    Grec 14

    This is a hand written text and the letter do not conform to printed Greek texts. This will be helpful in reading the minuscule script.
    Greek minuscule - Wikipedia
     
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  14. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Off hand I do not have that information.
     
  15. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    It is my understanding the reading is 5th century, The () indicating it has a unique reading.
     
  16. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    The CNTTS apparatus has "sup" and states: "indicates a supplied reading added by a scribe at a later date."

    The NA28 apparatus states superscript s "(= supplementum) indicates a reading derived from a later addition to a manuscript, usually replacing a lost folio or section of a manuscript."

    The UBS5 has "supp" (as does the Tyndale) and states: "A portion of a manuscript supplied by a later hand where the original is missing, usually representing a different text type."

    According to Encountering the Manuscripts: An Introduction to New Testament Paleography & Textual Criticism by Philip Comfort "John [i.e. Gospel of John] is more complicated because the first part of John (1:1-5:11), which fills a quire, was the work of a seventh-century scribe who must have replaced a quire (Ws designate the work of this scribe)" pp. 84-85.
     
    #56 Origen, Mar 3, 2020
    Last edited: Mar 3, 2020
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  17. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    T
    Thanks especially for the red underlining and regular Greek font! Extremely helpful! Thanks for taking the time.
     
  18. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    No problem. I am glad to help. If one does know what one is looking for, it is very difficult to see it given the Medieval cursive Greek script.
     
  19. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    Oh I am sure they had ancestors going back a lot farther than that. Generation after generation. All going back to the first century AD.

    Yes it is. We do not get to a serious textual variant until verse 18. So, until verse 18 1-17, how did all those late (including A 5th) manuscripts do? I will bet better than Aleph and a few others.


    Do you have a source for this?

    It is hard for something so old to survive. The percentage is probably much higher than 90%.

    So was the reading “Son”. Don’t many of these fathers use both, or are quoted as for both readings. Origen, Irenaus? As far as Jerome what did he put in the Latin Vulgate?













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  20. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    All of a sudden I am liking uncial script.
    With your red underling and regular Greek font I was actually able to make it out.
    Now I know were Erasmus or Froben got their style of font from.
    Your post was Fantastic !
     
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