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Featured Biblical Penal Substitution

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JonC, Apr 27, 2020.

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  1. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Over several threads I have commented that I do not hold the Penal Substitution Theory. What I mean by this is that I do not affirm the post-medieval Penal Substitution Theory that was articulated primarily during the 16th and 17th centuries and is held in many Western churches to include evangelical Baptist churches.

    While I reject Penal Substitution Theory, I affirm biblical penal substitution. This is an important distinction because it avoids the strawman arguments about “cosmic child abuse”, “bloodless atonement”, etc.

    Paul tells us that God condemned sin in the flesh of the Messiah. This is penal substitution (biblical penal substitution) because God is condemning (penal) sin in the flesh of the Messiah (substitution) so that in Him there is no condemnation (we will not be condemned).

    Paul tells us that the Law came that sin might abound. God gave the Law so that sin would do its worst in the people of the Law (where there is the Law there is transgression, the Law magnifies sin) and ultimately be nailed to a tree, handed to the Messiah, and dealt with once and for all in the flesh of the Messiah. This is penal substitution.
     
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  2. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    To put biblical penal substitution in context (and perhaps explain some of the background to my view) - I believe that Jesus died at Passover rather than the Day of Atonement is significant as Passover is a biblical example of the work of Christ (a “type”) that is used throughout the Old Testament (to include Isaiah and the “exodus” that would come).

    At Passover sin and forgiveness is not the topic. A lamb was slaughtered not to cover the sins of Israel but to free Israel from bondage. Israel was not in bondage to Egypt because of sin. So this influences my understanding of the Reconciliation. The Day of Atonement is important, and it points to Christ and the work of forgiveness. But only as a part of an overarching narrative – that of reconciliation and the freedom of bondage from the “powers of darkness”. This theme of exodus is common throughout the old and new testament. In Scripture this idea has more significance than forgiveness, for these powers are what ultimately necessitates forgiveness. This is the context in which I believe penal substitution belongs, not as the main focus of Reconciliation but as a vital aspect of our redemption.
     
  3. Particular

    Particular Well-Known Member

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    JonC, it seems you have gone a long way to try twist penal substitution. You have muddied up the waters unnecessarily, in my opinion. You position reads more like a conspiracy theory.
     
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  4. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Thank you for responding. I cannot take credit for those ideas because they are not my own, but they do reflect my understanding of penal substitution in the Bible.

    Your reply does not really help in terms of understanding what you find incorrect about the post. It only says that you think I went a long way to twist penal substitution and in your opinion obscures the topic.

    What part of my statement do you believe twists penal substitution and why?

    How, in your opinion, does this read as a "conspiracy theory"?
     
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  5. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    I have to admit, I read your post several times and don’t see the difference you are making between the two theories of penal substitution theories mentioned.

    It appears your view stands on the difference between a “passover sacrifice” and an “atonement sacrifice”, with you believing Jesus died on Passover.

    That seems unlikely, based on scripture that He and apostles took the Passover meal the day prior to His death.

    If your belief relies heavily on His death on the Passover, I don’t see how it can be supported by scripture.

    peace to you
     
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  6. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    There may be no difference between what we believe, I really do not know.

    The difference between what I believe and how I define the Theory of Penal Substitution Atonement (PSA) is typically PSA presents Jesus as taking the punishment intended for our sins in our place so that we would not experience that punishment thereby satisfying divine justice. I do not know that this philosophy of justice is correct in a secular sense (some cases I can see that it may be, but other times I cannot), but I definitely do not ascribe this judicial philosophy to divine justice.

    That said, I guess it all depends on how terms are defined. PSA means so many things to so many people.
     
  7. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Penal Substitution is rooted in the character of God. 'Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts!' How can God be holy, just and righteous and yet justify the ungodly (Romans 5:6)?

    For me the key text (or one of them) is Romans 3:23-26. 'for all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God, being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed......'
    So Christ was offered as a propitiation - that is, a sacrifice that turns away wrath - to demonstrate, not God's love (though there are many texts that show that) but His justice. The cross showed that God had been just to pass over the sins of the elect Israelites in the past, although the blood of bulls and goats can never take away sins (Hebrews 10:11). Those sacrifices pointed and looked forward to the Lord Jesus Christ who would in due course offer one perfect sacrifice for sins which would satisfy God's wrath against His people forever and those who looked past the dead animals to the coming Messiah were saved.
    '.......To demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.' And also for us today, God is just in justifying the ungodly because sin has been punished, the righteousness of God upheld because Christ, who knew no sin, willingly became sin for us and bore the punishment for it that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
     
  8. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I see some subjective criticism of what I posted
    It is very interesting, I think, that the root of our different views is the same.

    Christus Victor is also rooted in the holiness of God (1 Peter 1; Romans 5; Matthew 20).

    So we do have a lot in common, even though we reject one another’s conclusions.


    Here are two of the key texts for Christus Victor:


    Romans 3:21-26 But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.


    1 Corinthians 15:20-28 But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleep. For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive. But each in his own order: Christ the first fruits, after that those who are Christ's at His coming, then comes the end, when He hands over the kingdom to the God and Father, when He has abolished all rule and all authority and power. For He must reign until He has put all His enemies under His feet. The last enemy that will be abolished is death. For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him. When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all.
     
  9. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Your version of it, bujt where is the wrath of God propitiated and appeased for in your substitution view?
    and again, you are saying that the reformers all were wrong on this issue, not biblical their views, yet its just as biblical and even more so then your view expressed here!
     
  10. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    His Pst viewpoint is not pst as has been defined and commonly held since time of reformation!
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The common held and defined pst viewpoint has been that of the reformers such as Luther and Calvin, correct?
     
  12. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The key distinction pst from other atonement views would be that the wrath of God actually was and is atoned for and propitiated now by Christ!
    Without that, how can God be holy and also able to freely forgive and justify lost sinners?
     
  13. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    From what you posted, I see two events. The first is the death of Jesus as propitiation. That evolves penal substitution. The second is resurrection/exaltation of Jesus. That involves Christus Victor.

    The two are linked, of course, but not the same event. Perhaps a good argument is that penal substitution laid the foundation for Christus Victor as did all other aspects of the life of Jesus.

    Perhaps you could explain exactly how your view of penal substitution differs from 15th-16th century reformers view and how that relates to a Passover sacrifice verses an atonement sacrifice?

    peace to you
     
  14. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    This is the part that i do not believe is actually Biblical, thus making the modern Penal Substituionary Atonement, in some form, incorrect. Scripture clearly teaches:

    Romans 5:9
    Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him.

    Ephesians 2:3
    At one time we all lived among them, fulfilling the cravings of our flesh and indulging its desires and thoughts. Like the rest, we were by nature children of wrath.

    1 Thessalonians 1:10
    and to await His Son from heaven, whom He raised from the dead--Jesus our deliverer from the coming wrath.


    Another aspect of the Penal Substitionary Atonement that modern proponents adhere to is that the "spiritual death" of Christ is what actually atoned for our sin. That is also incorrect. It was the physical death, the blood of Jesus Christ that atoned for our sin. The passage i mentioned above states that and many others:

    Colossians 1:20; 22
    and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross

    yet He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach
     
  15. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Could you give an example of someone or group that holds to the spiritual death atonement theory. I have never heard of this before.

    peace to you
     
  16. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    @Martin Marprelate offered a statement on another thread that I will borrow and use here (it shows the difference, I think, fairly well). The statement was from Pierced for our Transgressions by Jeffrey, Ovey and Sach.

    Penal Substitution Atonement says - " that God gave Himself in the person of His Son to suffer instead of us the death, punishment and curse due to fallen humanity as the penalty for sin"

    BUT penal substitution in Christus Victor says that God gave Himself in the person of His Son to suffer for us the death, punishment and curse due to fallen humanity as the penalty for sin.

    Those two statements are very similar, but they are saying two very different things.
     
  17. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    Greetings to you, brother. Just wait a few minutes/hours and you'll see some posts on here that will tell you Jesus experienced spiritual death in order to justify us. If they don't, i will get you the info you ask about.
     
  18. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    I have been contemplating this a lot myself.

    Jesus died for us--this doesn't mean He necessarily died "instead" of us, but He died "For" us. Meaning, He didn't "die in our place" (we all still physically die), but that His death was "For our benefit". Like giving a gift at Christmas--I bought this FOR you.

    But i will say, 1 Peter 3:18 does bring in some form of PSA:

    For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit.

    which still shows it was His physical death that accomplished the work of God.

    He died willingly for our sins.
     
    #18 JonShaff, Apr 28, 2020
    Last edited: Apr 28, 2020
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  19. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Thanks for the post. I will take some time to evaluate the difference, if any, between Jesus dying “instead of us” and Jesus dying “for us” as it concerns the punishment for sin
    and the wrath of God.

    Perhaps you could explain why dying “for us” is distinctly tied to penal substitution Christus Victor and not penal substitution atonement?

    peace to you
     
  20. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Greetings to you as well. I’ll watch for the posts. Thanks

    peace to you
     
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