Featured 2 Cor. 5:18-19

Tell us exactly what you believe about faith, Van. Everything I have read from you is that faith is given to humans at conception. Do you wish to clarify?

 

Do you agree to the above statement? I can't tell if you are in agreement or if you call it nonsense. Please clarify.

 

What, exactly, do you believe? You seem to utterly reject what you wrote above.

 

When does human faith originate in a human, Van?

 

Pot ... Kettle ... Black ...

 

I agree with Dave G.
Your Christian grace and love is underwhelming.

quod si invicem mordetis et comeditis videte ne ab invicem consumamini

finis

 

??? Perhaps you have a unique definition of impute. ???

 

shorter speech: The little quirks and idiosyncracies that are of little or no measure may be dismissed,

 

[Eze 18:20 NASB] 20 "The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment for the father's iniquity, nor will the father bear the punishment for the son's iniquity; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be upon himself.

 

To be fair, this verse is in reference to a saying that the exiles had used whereby they accused God of judging them for their ancestors sins. God is correcting them so they would own their particular sins.

 

Thank you.

It still shines light on the point that under the proposed paradigm, God will have forgiven every sin except the one these people did not actually commit, and then punishing the “son” exclusively for the sin of the “father”.

It contradicts the LESSON that God was making in the quoted text.

 

Quantrill,
I'll give this one more try...

What I'm trying to do is to get you to see that if someone reconciles themselves to another ( in this case, God reconciling the "world" ( which you seem to think means every man, woman and child who ever lived ) to Himself, then that person or group has had their relations made friendly again.

The Lord would then look favorably upon them, and not unfavorably.
That's what "reconcile" means, at least to me...to make friends with and to bestow favor on.
For example:

If I were to have an argument with my brother over something, and we become enemies...
Then I were to go to Him, asking forgiveness and he does so,
Then our relationship is restored and we are reconciled to one another.
We go from being enemies, to friends again.

It's the same with the Lord.
Yet the Lord clearly says this of those He has, apparently ( if I'm understanding you correctly ) reconciled to Himself:


" Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:" ( Matthew 25:41 ).

" If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema. Maranatha." ( 1 Corinthians 16:22 ). <--- "Anathema" means "cursed".

" But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
9 As we said before, so say I now again, If any [man] preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed." ( Galatians 1:8-9 ). <--- Those that preach another gospel are accursed.


Question:
How can God curse those that He has reconciled ( declared them to be His friends ) to Himself, when they are now His friends?

If you can honestly tell me that God casts His friends into Hell, then I'll have to accept that.
But I cannot agree with the contradiction presented when the word "world" is used to describe every man, woman and child that ever lived in 2 Corinthians 5:18-19.
As I see it, the "us" in verse 18 are believers out of every tongue, tribe and nation ( Revelation 5:9, Revelation 7:9 ) and only include "them which are called, both Jews and Greeks ( 1 Corinthians 1:24 )".
To me, they are the "world" in verse 19.


This will be my final reply to you in this thread.
As always,
I wish you well, sir, and I bid you a good morning and rest of the day.

 

Note how the Calvinists make up falsehoods then attribute the falsehoods to others. Vicious and vindictive.

 

Two questions concerning (2 Cor. 5:18-19)

1.) How did God reconcile the world to Himself?

2.) How could God not impute the world's trespasses to them?[/quote]

1.) The text actually says God is reconciling the world to Himself. So that refers to an ongoing process. God is reconciling the world (humankind) to Himself, one sinner at a time. Therefore the "us" (verse 18) refers to those God has already placed into the body of Christ, thus a done dead of reconciliation.

2.) Referring to those reconciled, those placed in Christ already, He removed their sin burden, what God had held against them as a consequence of their sins, by the washing of regeneration, also called the circumcision of Christ, because Christ's sacrifice, the shedding of His blood, provides the justification for the forgiveness of their sins.

An important additional point of the passage is assigning us (those reconciled already) the ministry of reconciliation, begging the lost to be reconciled to God through belief in our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.​