The eternal subordination of the Word.

Jesus and the Father are both there "The God"

 

He was the Angel of the Lord at times before the Incarnation, but as you stated, never a man until the NT!

 

To the Truine God, already had happened, but also had to be worked out in time and space!

 

THIS is YOUR own words: "Jesus being the Christ was a man and God before His human birth"

 

Revelation 13:8, "And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the Book of Life of the Lamb, slain from the foundation of the world."

 

So you don't see a hypostatic union?
Seems you draw a very shatp dichotomy with all kinds of static

 

but, Jesus Christ did not, or could not, have died before His Incarnation. for anyone to suggest this, is in deep heresy!

 

Jesus is not called "The God" in John 1:1, "εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος"

 

ah, but this does not mean that Jesus Christ is not here called "the God". In this construction in the Greek, "και θεος ην ο λογος", in the context, John could not have written, "και ο θεος ην ο λογος", as this would make "The God" and "The Word", convertable terms, which would mean that The Word, was all of The God! The previous sentence forbids this, "και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον", where John has distinguished "The Word" from "the God", by the use of the presposition, "προς", "with". In the final clause "θεος", even without the Greek article, is not "indefinite", as the whole structure of the verse demand John write this way. In verse 6 we read, "there was a man sent by θεος, whose name was John". same as in verse one, with not definite article, "ο", which is not required, because of the preposition, "παρα", "by". However, like John 1:1, no one would translate the Greek "sent by a god"!

 

There is no need for the Article to identify the Word as being 'The God:, as the sentence clrealy states that Father and Word are reually God!

There are p[lenty of cases when describing God the Father the definite article is not used, but would we then say there the Father was not God?
The JW especially try to make a big deal on this, as "proof" Jesus was a "god", but not God!

 

indeed, too much is made of the use of the Greek article with θεος, to try to show that Jesus is not God. those who use this argument do not understand the basic rules of Greek grammar!

 

# 135 misunderstands what I have said. The Greek text does not read "The God", as the Greek does not have the definite article. However, as I have very clearly explained, in #132, when the Greek is translated into English, the meaning is not "god", but "God", being definite. Member 37818 has ignored what I have written, and continues to push falsehood!

 

Neither is Jacob wrestling with The Lord or Joshua taking his shoes off for The Captain of The Lord of Hosts.

 

John could not use it there, as that would have meant then that Jesus and the Father are the same Person, would have Oneness doctrine!

 

Greek text clearly states both the Word, Jesus, and the Father are both God!

 

JW and Unitarians jump on this to make Jesus a "god"