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The eternal subordination of the Word.

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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Man is not God and God is not a man. Now Jesus Christ is both, agreed?

and how is the fact, that Jesus Christ, the eternal God, became flesh, have anything to do with any "eternal subordination"? You are reading too much human mumbo-jumbo into the Bible!
 

37818

Well-Known Member
We beheld His Glory is the context. Anything other than Jesus is God is contextually impossible regardless of Greek 'possibilities'.
jesus is a man. Jesus being the Christ was a man and always God before His human birth and forever since. Now the Greek in the text as to who was "the God" and who was "God" in John 1:1 was at issue.
 
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37818

Well-Known Member
and how is the fact, that Jesus Christ, the eternal God, became flesh, have anything to do with any "eternal subordination"? You are reading too much human mumbo-jumbo into the Bible!
You cannot understand what you do not want to hear. John 1:2, 1 Corinthians 15:28.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Adam heard the Voice of The Lord Walking in the Garden, in the cool of the day.

That is Jesus.

But He was NOT a "man", which is what Jesus derived from Mary at the Incarnation! The Bible very clearly says that, "The Word BECAME flesh" (John 1:14), and "God was manifest in the flesh" (1 Timothy 3:16), which Jesus was NOT piror to His Incarnation! The Bible does NOT tell us what "body" Jesus had in His OT appearances, but we do know it was ONLY at His Incarnation, that He BECAME flesh, which is clear that He was NOT "flesh (human)" before this time!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
What is the rank heresy? If so, report the post!

Christ was a man and God before His human birth

and I have reported it!

Jesus BECAME FLESH at His Incarnation, which means that before this He was NOT. To say otherwise is HERESY!
 

Alan Gross

Well-Known Member
But He was NOT a "man", which is what Jesus derived from Mary at the Incarnation! The Bible very clearly says that, "The Word BECAME flesh" (John 1:14), and "God was manifest in the flesh" (1 Timothy 3:16), which Jesus was NOT piror to His Incarnation! The Bible does NOT tell us what "body" Jesus had in His OT appearances, but we do know it was ONLY at His Incarnation, that He BECAME flesh, which is clear that He was NOT "flesh (human)" before this time!

What is time as Lamb Slain before the Foundation of the World?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
What is time as Lamb Slain before the Foundation of the World?

God is NOT controlled by the limits of time, so to Him, everything is ever present! Jesus was foretold to have been "slain before the foundation of the world, but atually died on the cross in about A.D. 33. Are you suggesting that Jesus died before the world was created? this is more nonsense!
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Neither John 1:2, or 1 Corinthians 15:28, teach ANY "eternal subordination"! You are forcing this meaning!
How? How is being someone other than God in John 1:2 not a matter of being subordinate? How is being in subjection to God in 1 Corinthians 15:28 not a matter of being subordinate? These two issues need to be answered first before the issue of being eternal.
 
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