Easter in Tyndale's Bible Before KJV

[Hark]

At this link is a thread I had started studying the Passover & the 7 Days of the Unleavened Bread.

Studying Passover & the 7 Days of Unleavened Bread | Baptist Christian Forums (baptistboard.com)

So it looks like Easter has to be done by other research.

Easter... or Passover? Acts 12:4

Quote below from this link above

"The word ‘passover’ was not known until it was used by William Tyndale in his Bible version (1526-31). Until that time no English Bible contained the word, which was left untranslated. Yet, ‘Easter’ was first used in his version. Wycliffe’s version referred to the Latin, pask or paske.

In Tyndale’s Bible, he used ‘Easter’ or ester, 14 times, and its allied words more times than that. However, in the Old Testament he retained ‘passover’. He is said to have interpreted ‘passover’ as ‘Easter’ in Paul’s book, because that is how the Christians (remember – by then including many gentiles/Romans and ex-pagans) in his day recognised the feast-day (pagan and Christian merging because they were about the same time). This, however, is only a partial answer."

To confirm this research I found Tyndale's Bible online.

Luke 22 - TYN Bible - Bible Study Tools

Luke 22:11 The feaste of swete breed drue nye whiche is called ester Tyndale's Bible

Luke 22:7 Then came ye daye of swete breed when of necessite the esterlambe must be offered. Tyndale's Bible

And most importantly;

Acts 12:4 And when he had caught him he put him in preson and delyvered him to .iiii. quaternios of soudiers to be kepte entendynge after ester to brynge him forth to the people. Tyndale's Bible

Interesting. So Easter did exists in Tyndale's bible before the KJV translated pascha as such in Acts 12:4.

 

[John of Japan]

At this link is a thread I had started studying the Passover & the 7 Days of the Unleavened Bread.

Studying Passover & the 7 Days of Unleavened Bread | Baptist Christian Forums (baptistboard.com)

So it looks like Easter has to be done by other research.

Easter... or Passover? Acts 12:4

Quote below from this link above

"The word ‘passover’ was not known until it was used by William Tyndale in his Bible version (1526-31). Until that time no English Bible contained the word, which was left untranslated. Yet, ‘Easter’ was first used in his version. Wycliffe’s version referred to the Latin, pask or paske.

In Tyndale’s Bible, he used ‘Easter’ or ester, 14 times, and its allied words more times than that. However, in the Old Testament he retained ‘passover’. He is said to have interpreted ‘passover’ as ‘Easter’ in Paul’s book, because that is how the Christians (remember – by then including many gentiles/Romans and ex-pagans) in his day recognised the feast-day (pagan and Christian merging because they were about the same time). This, however, is only a partial answer."

To confirm this research I found Tyndale's Bible online.

Luke 22 - TYN Bible - Bible Study Tools

Luke 22:11 The feaste of swete breed drue nye whiche is called ester Tyndale's Bible

Luke 22:7 Then came ye daye of swete breed when of necessite the esterlambe must be offered. Tyndale's Bible

And most importantly;

Acts 12:4 And when he had caught him he put him in preson and delyvered him to .iiii. quaternios of soudiers to be kepte entendynge after ester to brynge him forth to the people. Tyndale's Bible

Interesting. So Easter did exists in Tyndale's bible before the KJV translated pascha as such in Acts 12:4.

Some problems with the link you posted:
1. Herod is not the one saying the word. The Word of God is what is saying the word.
2. The Greek word translated "Easter" is translated "passover" in the KJV every single other time it occurs in the NT.
3. The article is anonymous. So how can we check out the author? Could be a JW, or some other cult member.
4. The author doesn't give any sources. So how can we know he is right?
5. The author claims that Paul wrote Acts. Could be a liberal. Conservative authors agree about Luke. "What we can say positivly is that the tradition that Luke wrote the third Gospel and Acts goes back at least to the early second century, that it was unanimously accepted within the church, and that it would be very strange were it not true" (The Expositor's Bible Commentary, "Luke," by Richard Longenecker, p. 240).

I'm not saying I disagree with you, but only that your source is quite questionable.

 

[rlvaughn]

3. The article is anonymous. So how can we check out the author? Could be a JW, or some other cult member.

These appear to be the two people behind the website, with one claiming to have “the mantle of responsibility for writing the content.” People Behind Bible Theology Ministries

Interesting. So Easter did exists in Tyndale's bible before the KJV translated pascha as such in Acts 12:4.

A brief sketch of some study I have made in the past.

Englishmen had no word for the Old Testament feast of Passover, and identified the New Testament Passover with the resurrection of Jesus Christ and what they called Ester or Easter. The English translator Wycliffe used “paske” here, basically transliterating it over from the Greek or Latin. On the other hand, nearly 200 years later when Tyndale translated the New Testament, he chose “ester,”* a word that was in common usage at that time. The word “Passover,” which is current in most modern translations, did not exist at that time. Tyndale himself coined the word “Passover” when he translated the Old Testament from Hebrew into English. Possibly (just a guess and an opinion), he felt that using “Easter/Ester” was taking something back from the New Testament and transposing it on the old. Regardless, he is the source of the word “Passover.”

As translation and language progressed, the use of “Easter” for Passover in the New Testament dwindled. By the time of the 1568 Bishops’ Bible “Easter” is used only twice (Acts 12:4 and John 11:55). With the coming of the King James, “Easter” was left with this one solitary use.

* my count using StudyLight.org is 24 times in 23 verses in the New Testament. If I remember correctly, I included all the related words, such as “esterlambe.”

 

[Van]

If I am following the gist of this thread, the King James Bible translators did not introduce the mistranslation of the Greek "pesah" as "Easter," that distinction belongs to Tyndale. However, Tyndale also should be credited with inventing the word "passover" currently used to translate "Pesah" and its Hebrew root (H6452).

 

[John of Japan]

These appear to be the two people behind the website, with one claiming to have “the mantle of responsibility for writing the content.” People Behind Bible Theology Ministries
A brief sketch of some study I have made in the past.

Englishmen had no word for the Old Testament feast of Passover, and identified the New Testament Passover with the resurrection of Jesus Christ and what they called Ester or Easter. The English translator Wycliffe used “paske” here, basically transliterating it over from the Greek or Latin. On the other hand, nearly 200 years later when Tyndale translated the New Testament, he chose “ester,”* a word that was in common usage at that time. The word “Passover,” which is current in most modern translations, did not exist at that time. Tyndale himself coined the word “Passover” when he translated the Old Testament from Hebrew into English. Possibly (just a guess and an opinion), he felt that using “Easter/Ester” was taking something back from the New Testament and transposing it on the old. Regardless, he is the source of the word “Passover.”

As translation and language progressed, the use of “Easter” for Passover in the New Testament dwindled. By the time of the 1568 Bishops’ Bible “Easter” is used only twice (Acts 12:4 and John 11:55). With the coming of the King James, “Easter” was left with this one solitary use.

* my count using StudyLight.org is 24 times in 23 verses in the New Testament. If I remember correctly, I included all the related words, such as “esterlambe.”

We're in a conference, so I don't have time to write much, but ISBE vol. 2 (rev. 1982) says, "The term Easter was derived from the Anglo-Saxon 'Eostre,' the name of the goddess of Spring." In the 8th century, it began to be applied to the resurrection of Christ (article by D. W. Burdick). Doesn't sound like passover at all to me.

 

[Hark]

Some problems with the link you posted:
1. Herod is not the one saying the word. The Word of God is what is saying the word.
2. The Greek word translated "Easter" is translated "passover" in the KJV every single other time it occurs in the NT.
3. The article is anonymous. So how can we check out the author? Could be a JW, or some other cult member.
4. The author doesn't give any sources. So how can we know he is right?
5. The author claims that Paul wrote Acts. Could be a liberal. Conservative authors agree about Luke. "What we can say positivly is that the tradition that Luke wrote the third Gospel and Acts goes back at least to the early second century, that it was unanimously accepted within the church, and that it would be very strange were it not true" (The Expositor's Bible Commentary, "Luke," by Richard Longenecker, p. 240).

I'm not saying I disagree with you, but only that your source is quite questionable.

Well, it is good to question sources for why I sought out in a bing search engine for a Tyndale Bible online. I did not take that poster's word for it at that Christian forum, because he was in error about the author of Acts being Paul & not Luke's. I believe it is Luke because Paul would not write about himself in the third person. Only another witness like Luke could have done it.

And since Tyndale's Bible is not at Bible gateway, I had hoped in the Lord that He raised someone else up to put the Tyndale Bible online & He must have done so.

Acts 12 - TYN Bible - Bible Study Tools

But it is only part of the answer about the Easter usage in KJV Acts 12:4, but as you say & I agree, I fail to see why the KJV translators continue to use Easter for only one time when they had applied Passover elsewhere in the Bible like the 1599 Geneva bible had done.

At any rate, to say KJV pulled Easter out of thin air is a bit of an oversight when apparently they never translated pascha for passover at all from before.

Jews often refer to the first month of their year as spring time thus also as the Passover month. Is that why ester was translated from pascha to mean? Unless we get some reliable resource from the KJV translators for why they used Easter in Acts 12:4 instead of Passover for the rest of the KJV or even from Tyndale for why they had translated ester from pascha for what people have translated to mean passiver afterwards in Bibles after Tyndale's we may never know..

 

[Logos1560]

At any rate, to say KJV pulled Easter out of thin air is a bit of an oversight when apparently they never translated pascha for passover at all from before.
..

William Tyndale translated the New Testament before he translated the Old Testament. William Tyndale had used "Easter" or "ester" in translating the Greek NT, likely from influence of Luther's German Bible. Easter was used by Tyndale as a rendering to refer to the Jewish Passover.

Because this rendering "Easter" was used to refer to the Jewish Passover would not be proof that a Christian celebration called "Easter" existed in the time of the New Testament. It has not been claimed that the KJV pulled the word "Easter" "out of thin air." It is acknowledged to be fact that Tyndale had earlier used "Easter" for the Jewish Passover.

William Tyndale is said to have coined or invented the word "passover" when he later translated the Old Testament. This word may not have been invented in English when he first translated the New Testament or at least this word had not been used as the English name for this certain Jewish feast.
The 1535 Coverdale's Bible had even used "Easter" for the Jewish Passover in a few Old Testament verses.

Ezekiel 45:21 in the 1535 Coverdale's Bible
Upon ye xiiii day of the first month ye shal kepe Easter. Seven days shal the feast contynue, wherin there shal no sower ner leveded bred be eat.

After this rendering "passover" was used in the English Old Testament, the early English Bible translators would soon begin to use it also in the New Testament for the Jewish Passover, replacing the earlier uses of "Easter" to refer to the Jewish Passover.

The 1560 Geneva Bible had replaced all the English NT uses of "Easter" with "Passover" while the 1568 Bishops' Bible replaced most of them, leaving three uses unchanged or uncorrected [two uses at John 11:55 and one at Acts 12:4].

There is some historical evidence from the 1600's that the KJV translators had likely followed the Geneva Bible's rendering "the passover" at Acts 12:4, and that a Church of England prelate or prelates inserted "Easter" back into this verse.

Edward Whiston indicated that a great prelate, the chief supervisor of the KJV, inserted “Easter” back into the text of the KJV at this verse as one of the 14 changes he was said to have made (Life and Death of Mr. Henry Jessey, p. 49). In his 1648 sermon entitled “Truth and Love,” Thomas Hill also noted that Acts 12:4 “was another place that was altered (as you have heard) to keep up that holy time of Easter, as they would think it” (Six Sermons, p. 25).

 

[Hark]

These appear to be the two people behind the website, with one claiming to have “the mantle of responsibility for writing the content.” People Behind Bible Theology Ministries
A brief sketch of some study I have made in the past.

Englishmen had no word for the Old Testament feast of Passover, and identified the New Testament Passover with the resurrection of Jesus Christ and what they called Ester or Easter. The English translator Wycliffe used “paske” here, basically transliterating it over from the Greek or Latin. On the other hand, nearly 200 years later when Tyndale translated the New Testament, he chose “ester,”* a word that was in common usage at that time. The word “Passover,” which is current in most modern translations, did not exist at that time. Tyndale himself coined the word “Passover” when he translated the Old Testament from Hebrew into English. Possibly (just a guess and an opinion), he felt that using “Easter/Ester” was taking something back from the New Testament and transposing it on the old. Regardless, he is the source of the word “Passover.”

As translation and language progressed, the use of “Easter” for Passover in the New Testament dwindled. By the time of the 1568 Bishops’ Bible “Easter” is used only twice (Acts 12:4 and John 11:55). With the coming of the King James, “Easter” was left with this one solitary use.

* my count using StudyLight.org is 24 times in 23 verses in the New Testament. If I remember correctly, I included all the related words, such as “esterlambe.”

The first of the year is considered to be Passover month to the Jews & that is also considered to be spring time too.

I do wonder if that was the reason why Tyndale had translated it as Easter before it got used less with Passover as the reference? We may never know for sure until we come face to face with Him, but at least we know now Easter is meant to be the same reference as Passover. Why the KJV only applied it one time in Acts 12:4 unlike the 1599 Geneva bible is beyond me.

Some had theorized that Herod was not a Jew but a heathen ruler & thus surmised that he had Easter celebrations as in Spring Time celebrations by pagans that he , himself personally, would wait after but it seems to be a stretch.

Unless the Lord provide a resource directly from the KJV translators for why the KJV translators used Easter instead of Passover in Acts 12:4, we shall have to wait until then or when we get to Heaven.

 

[Hark]

We're in a conference, so I don't have time to write much, but ISBE vol. 2 (rev. 1982) says, "The term Easter was derived from the Anglo-Saxon 'Eostre,' the name of the goddess of Spring." In the 8th century, it began to be applied to the resurrection of Christ (article by D. W. Burdick). Doesn't sound like passover at all to me.

The first month of the Jewish year is spring time when they hold the Passover on the 14th day. It is also called the Passover Month. Lacking the translation of the word "Passover" from the untranslated pascha, I could almost understand how ester or Easter came into use.

Just because pagan began applying their own festivities to Spring Time hence Easter; does not make Easter nor spring Time of pagan origin.

 

[Hark]

William Tyndale translated the New Testament before he translated the Old Testament. William Tyndale had used "Easter" or "ester" in translating the Greek NT, likely from influence of Luther's German Bible. Easter was used by Tyndale as a rendering to refer to the Jewish Passover.

Because this rendering "Easter" was used to refer to the Jewish Passover would not be proof that a Christian celebration called "Easter" existed in the time of the New Testament. It has not been claimed that the KJV pulled the word "Easter" "out of thin air." It is acknowledged to be fact that Tyndale had earlier used "Easter" for the Jewish Passover.

William Tyndale is said to have coined or invented the word "passover" when he later translated the Old Testament. This word may not have been invented in English when he first translated the New Testament or at least this word had not been used as the English name for this certain Jewish feast.
The 1535 Coverdale's Bible had even used "Easter" for the Jewish Passover in a few Old Testament verses.

Ezekiel 45:21 in the 1535 Coverdale's Bible
Upon ye xiiii day of the first month ye shal kepe Easter. Seven days shal the feast contynue, wherin there shal no sower ner leveded bred be eat.

After this rendering "passover" was used in the English Old Testament, the early English Bible translators would soon begin to use it also in the New Testament for the Jewish Passover, replacing the earlier uses of "Easter" to refer to the Jewish Passover.

The 1560 Geneva Bible had replaced all the English NT uses of "Easter" with "Passover" while the 1568 Bishops' Bible replaced most of them, leaving three uses unchanged or uncorrected [two uses at John 11:55 and one at Acts 12:4].

@robycop3 implied that Easter did not exist thus I had paraphrased the contention as if Easter came out of nowhere. Not sure why no one corrected him. FYI

There is some historical evidence from the 1600's that the KJV translators had likely followed the Geneva Bible's rendering "the passover" at Acts 12:4, and that a Church of England prelate or prelates inserted "Easter" back into this verse.

Edward Whiston indicated that a great prelate, the chief supervisor of the KJV, inserted “Easter” back into the text of the KJV at this verse as one of the 14 changes he was said to have made (Life and Death of Mr. Henry Jessey, p. 49). In his 1648 sermon entitled “Truth and Love,” Thomas Hill also noted that Acts 12:4 “was another place that was altered (as you have heard) to keep up that holy time of Easter, as they would think it” (Six Sermons, p. 25).

Thank you very much for the information. That solves the mystery. So the KJV translators were not the ones that kept Acts 12:4 as Easter after all. Politics came into it to honor the festivities at Spring Time that they also call Easter.

By any chance can you start another thread sharing the source or link to these 14 changes done by this great prelate? This will be helpful. Thanks in advance.

Do leave a link in reply in this thread ' if " you do start that thread. Thanks.

 

[Jerome]

Oops, right there in the 1560 Geneva Bible:

note at Matt 27:15, "It was a tradition of the Jews to deliver a prisoner at Easter."

 

[Hark]

Oops, right there in the 1560 Geneva Bible:

note at Matt 27:15, "It was a tradition of the Jews to deliver a prisoner at Easter."
View attachment 4722

Thank you for sharing.

 

[Logos1560]

Oops, right there in the 1560 Geneva Bible:

It should be obvious that my statement was referring to what is in the text of the Geneva Bible, and not to any marginal notes.

 

[Yeshua1]

We're in a conference, so I don't have time to write much, but ISBE vol. 2 (rev. 1982) says, "The term Easter was derived from the Anglo-Saxon 'Eostre,' the name of the goddess of Spring." In the 8th century, it began to be applied to the resurrection of Christ (article by D. W. Burdick). Doesn't sound like passover at all to me.

Just seems that Kjvo is just straining to make sure that easter was not a mistake in translation!

 

[Jerome]

treated as a synonym, in 1610 edition of the Geneva Bible:


source

 

[Yeshua1]

At this link is a thread I had started studying the Passover & the 7 Days of the Unleavened Bread.

Studying Passover & the 7 Days of Unleavened Bread | Baptist Christian Forums (baptistboard.com)

So it looks like Easter has to be done by other research.

Easter... or Passover? Acts 12:4

Quote below from this link above

"The word ‘passover’ was not known until it was used by William Tyndale in his Bible version (1526-31). Until that time no English Bible contained the word, which was left untranslated. Yet, ‘Easter’ was first used in his version. Wycliffe’s version referred to the Latin, pask or paske.

In Tyndale’s Bible, he used ‘Easter’ or ester, 14 times, and its allied words more times than that. However, in the Old Testament he retained ‘passover’. He is said to have interpreted ‘passover’ as ‘Easter’ in Paul’s book, because that is how the Christians (remember – by then including many gentiles/Romans and ex-pagans) in his day recognised the feast-day (pagan and Christian merging because they were about the same time). This, however, is only a partial answer."

To confirm this research I found Tyndale's Bible online.

Luke 22 - TYN Bible - Bible Study Tools

Luke 22:11 The feaste of swete breed drue nye whiche is called ester Tyndale's Bible

Luke 22:7 Then came ye daye of swete breed when of necessite the esterlambe must be offered. Tyndale's Bible

And most importantly;

Acts 12:4 And when he had caught him he put him in preson and delyvered him to .iiii. quaternios of soudiers to be kepte entendynge after ester to brynge him forth to the people. Tyndale's Bible

Interesting. So Easter did exists in Tyndale's bible before the KJV translated pascha as such in Acts 12:4.

Did not the Kjv itself translate is as Passover ever time except this one mistake?

 

[Yeshua1]

William Tyndale translated the New Testament before he translated the Old Testament. William Tyndale had used "Easter" or "ester" in translating the Greek NT, likely from influence of Luther's German Bible. Easter was used by Tyndale as a rendering to refer to the Jewish Passover.

Because this rendering "Easter" was used to refer to the Jewish Passover would not be proof that a Christian celebration called "Easter" existed in the time of the New Testament. It has not been claimed that the KJV pulled the word "Easter" "out of thin air." It is acknowledged to be fact that Tyndale had earlier used "Easter" for the Jewish Passover.

William Tyndale is said to have coined or invented the word "passover" when he later translated the Old Testament. This word may not have been invented in English when he first translated the New Testament or at least this word had not been used as the English name for this certain Jewish feast.
The 1535 Coverdale's Bible had even used "Easter" for the Jewish Passover in a few Old Testament verses.

Ezekiel 45:21 in the 1535 Coverdale's Bible
Upon ye xiiii day of the first month ye shal kepe Easter. Seven days shal the feast contynue, wherin there shal no sower ner leveded bred be eat.

After this rendering "passover" was used in the English Old Testament, the early English Bible translators would soon begin to use it also in the New Testament for the Jewish Passover, replacing the earlier uses of "Easter" to refer to the Jewish Passover.

The 1560 Geneva Bible had replaced all the English NT uses of "Easter" with "Passover" while the 1568 Bishops' Bible replaced most of them, leaving three uses unchanged or uncorrected [two uses at John 11:55 and one at Acts 12:4].

There is some historical evidence from the 1600's that the KJV translators had likely followed the Geneva Bible's rendering "the passover" at Acts 12:4, and that a Church of England prelate or prelates inserted "Easter" back into this verse.

Edward Whiston indicated that a great prelate, the chief supervisor of the KJV, inserted “Easter” back into the text of the KJV at this verse as one of the 14 changes he was said to have made (Life and Death of Mr. Henry Jessey, p. 49). In his 1648 sermon entitled “Truth and Love,” Thomas Hill also noted that Acts 12:4 “was another place that was altered (as you have heard) to keep up that holy time of Easter, as they would think it” (Six Sermons, p. 25).

So the Kjv team had it correctly rendered as Passover, but got overriden into the mistaken Easter in final revision?

 

[Yeshua1]

treated as a synonym, in 1610 edition of the Geneva Bible:

View attachment 4723
source

There was no Easter at the time of Acts though!

 

[rlvaughn]

Oops, right there in the 1560 Geneva Bible:

note at Matt 27:15, "It was a tradition of the Jews to deliver a prisoner at Easter."
View attachment 4722

Interesting, they also used it in their heading on Deuteronomy 16:1. "Of Easter."

 

[rlvaughn]

And since Tyndale's Bible is not at Bible gateway, I had hoped in the Lord that He raised someone else up to put the Tyndale Bible online & He must have done so.

Acts 12 - TYN Bible - Bible Study Tools

A copy can also be found HERE, though not nearly so easily searchable!

We're in a conference, so I don't have time to write much, but ISBE vol. 2 (rev. 1982) says, "The term Easter was derived from the Anglo-Saxon 'Eostre,' the name of the goddess of Spring." In the 8th century, it began to be applied to the resurrection of Christ (article by D. W. Burdick). Doesn't sound like passover at all to me.

John, I am not sure the point you are intending to make. Tyndale was using a similar word they had for a word they did not have. He was not connecting passover to pagan worship.

Though the "pagan origin of Easter" is a common phrase I have heard almost all my life, there are alternative understandings of the history of the word "Easter," such as that posited by Hans J. Hillerbrand (Professor Emeritus of History and Religion, Duke University) at Brittanica.

There is now widespread consensus that the word derives from the Christian designation of Easter week as in albis, a Latin phrase that was understood as the plural of alba (“dawn”) and became eostarum in Old High German, the precursor of the modern German and English term.