He was greater then any of the Kjv 1611 team?
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Easter in Tyndale's Bible Before KJV
- Thread starter Hark
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Have to decide between greatest as in actual work published, or as most influential?
Hark
Well-Known Member
I rely only on the KJV for the meat of His words to discern good & evil with His help by His words because modern bibles have changed the message to sow doubts the meat in His words that you cannot reprove those astray by in their false teachings nor the apostasy they are in.
You cannot reprove modern day tongue speakers that believe the Holy Spirit can use God's gift of tongues to speak unto he people that He can turn it around and use it for Himself in uttering His prayers as in for private use. when John 16:13 in all Bibles says He cannot do that & the KJV & a few Bibles says He cannot even utter His groanings in Romans 8:26. Because modern Bibles do imply sounds are being made by the Holy Spirit "Himself" for why they have it as wordless groans, is why you cannot reprove modern day tongue speakers of their tongues for private use.
You cannot reprove believers that err thinking they are in the process of being saved when 1 Corinthians 1:18 in modern Bibles says "are being saved" rather than that they ae saved as the KJV has it but strangely enough, the NKJV does not.
Those changed message sows doubts to God's words in that modern Bible for why I rely only on the KJV for the meat of His words. It doesn't matter that there are scripture in that modern Bible to reprove their error because the changed message pulled out of context to support false teaching is enough to sow doubts towards those reproofs from scripture in that same Bible version.
It is on God to cause the increase, but if believers are not aware how the KJV has kept the meat of His words whereas other modern bibles has not, is why false teachings, misinformation, and apostasy shall continue to increase in the latter days where even Jesus prophesied that faith will be hard to find when He comes as the Bridegroom.
Luke 18:7 And shall not God avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them?8 I tell you that he will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth? KJV
Regardless of any supposed false claims by KJVOnlynism in exalting that Bible as perfect or whatever, I do declare the KJV Bible to be the only Bible that keeps the faith which is the good fight.
Others would be likes of Jerome, Luther, and the Kjv team!
They made some mistakes, as were not inspired by God to make a perfect translation!
So God ONLY inspired the Kjv to be His translation, correct?
Either or both.
Because you may declare it and believe it is not proof that your assertion is true.
Based on my study, I think that you sometimes jump to incorrect conclusions and that you have not demonstrated that you apply the exact same measures/standard to translation decisions in the KJV that you attempt to apply inconsistently to other English Bible translations.
How about Luther and Jerome?Either or both.
In my opinion, that “14 changes” charge falls short of being well established fact.
Anyway, I thought you might find the following interesting. It is one man’s opinion as to why the King James translators kept “Easter” in Acts 12:4. I find it interesting because the author, Joseph Rawson Lumby, was definitely not KJVO and was a translator on the Revised Version of the Old Testament (the Westcott-Hort one).
Joseph Rawson Lumby was co-editor of the Cambridge Bible for Schools, and he edited, with commentary, The Acts of The Apostles, Chapters I–XIV in The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges (J. J. S. Perowne, Gen. Ed., Cambridge: University Press, 1879, p. 147). The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges is a biblical commentary set published in parts by Cambridge University Press. Lumby he gives the following reason why he thinks the King James translators chose to keep the word “Easter” in Acts 12:4 – And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
intending after Easter (the Passover)] The rendering “Easter” is an attempt to give by an English word the notion of the whole feast. That this meaning and not the single day of the Paschal feast is intended by the Greek seems clear from the elaborate preparation made, as for a longer imprisonment than was the rule among the Jews. Peter was arrested at the commencement of the Passover feast (14th of Nisan), and the king’s intention was to proceed to sentence and punish him when the feast was at an end on the 21st of Nisan.
If that was the attempt, why not be consistent and also use Easter at Luke 22:1?
Luke 22:1
Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.
Still would be the wrong word to use there!
Hark
Well-Known Member
I have looked at the claims & even your opposition state that no message had been changed by these so called claims against the KJV.
You are not addressing any of the obvious changed message in modern Bibles that supports false teachings & apostasy whereby the KJCV can only reprove all of them..
You again are assuming that the Kjv had it translated correctly!
Well, I guess it is too late to ask Joseph Rawson Lumby what he thought.
Hark
Well-Known Member
In spite of the numerous sources ascribing to those 14 changes and yet failing to list them I have to give pause & agree with you.
Given Lumby's assumption is what it is, in lack of knowledge that Passover & Easter was not translated from pascha until Tyndale's Bible, and even though evidence was made about the prelate making changes outside of the KJV translators, regardless of being done to keep it as Easter for political or social reasonings, Easter is referring to Passover event.
Thank you for sharing.
I've learned to be very skeptical of what some post here.
Especially those in support of the KJVO!
Both impressive and influential.
It is as well-established as most things accepted to be historical facts from that period of time.
The assertion was made by reliable, trustworthy, respected believers/preachers (Thomas Hill and Henry Jessey), and they indicated that one original first-hand source for their assertion of changes being made was KJV translator Miles Smith who had told someone else about the changes. The assertion had been repeated second hand to one of them, but Thomas Hill and Henry Jessey would also have had access to first-hand evidence in that day to check out the assertion, and all that evidence may not be available today. There is the first-hand report of witnesses who claimed that they had seen the text of the KJV translators prepared for the printers and that they saw evidence of changes having been made. That text is now lost or destroyed (perhaps in the 1660 London fire), but it was available in the 1640's and 1650's so that the account in the state records could have been checked out by others.
It is also in agreement with other facts from first-hand sources such as the first-hand account of the Hampton Court conference that presents the plan for the making of the KJV. The stated plan for its making noted that bishops and the privy council would be permitted to review.
At least one of the KJV translators [Andrew Bing (1574-1652)] was still alive when Thomas Hill had the public assertion in his 1648 sermon, which was also printed. Many others who had worked with and for individual KJV translators would also have been alive. I have found no evidence that any one in 1648 and the years following disputed or questioned his assertion as not being true. In that day, when there was more first-hand evidence available, no one seems to have disputed the assertion in Thomas Hill's sermon.
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