Easter in Tyndale's Bible Before KJV

The Holy Spirit can do ANYTHING, as He is God.
We don't know how the Personages of the Godhead communicate among themselves. We don't know how He communicates with angels. I believe He created speech through sound waves for humans, as God can communicate with anyone instantly & soundlessly.
Now, I don't know you plan to go on with this silliness, but it does nothing to sustain your KJVO myth.

Jesus sent the Holy Spirit in His own place as Teacher.

Several pentecostal branches & "holiness" is particularly bad about it.

Same ole nonsense. We don't know what the Holy Spirit's groanings consist of. You're not helping your false KJVO myth one bit.

You're so obsessed & in thrall to the Satanic KJVO myth that you keep repeating something that was clearly explained earlier, and was actually explained years ago. You KJVOs are so desperate to try to find something...ANYTHING...to try to lend a little truth to your completely-false KJVO myth.

You cannot present any argument in favor of that myth that I haven't seen before & either refuted myself or saw it refuted by others. There's not a quark of truth in the KJVO myth.

"THE KJVO MYTH-PHONY AS A FORD CORVETTE !"

 

Once again, no one would've thought twice about Easter in the KJV had it been used CONSISTENTLY for pascha; it would simply be chalked up as an archaism. But that ONE TIME,with no reason to have done so, is certainly al attention-getter & is someone's GOOF.

 

It is important to notice in the timeline that the original Geneva Bible was published in 1560, and already had Passover then. The 1568 Bishops Bible, which the KJV translators were to use as their primary guide, had Easter in Acts 12:4 (but also John 11:55).

He's just back to his old tricks. Can't help himself.

 

The BIGGEST goof is to continue to use only a 400-yr-old translation. God has updated His word into TODAY'S language, just as He's done in the past.

 

Hark,

As for Luke 22:1, this verse says DUB was approaching, then in 22:7 the day of DUB came.
These don't specify the day clearly, but verse 7 coincides with Mt 26:17 which says Te Prote

Τῇ δὲ πρώτῃ τῶν ἀζύμων προσῆλθον οἱ μαθηταὶ τῷ Ἰησοῦ λέγοντες αὐτῷ Ποῦ θέλεις ἑτοιμάσωμέν σοι φαγεῖν τὸ πάσχα

τη δε πρωτη is the Dative Form of the Protos πρωτοσ.
This prote, protos means 2 days before the DUB, because Jews couldn't perfectly hurry up
the hiding of the Leavens before the DUB. Therefore 2 days before DUB are the days of preparation hiding the Leavens. One day is the Passover and therefore it doesn't have to be mentioned as the Prote, but one day before Passover was called Prote or Protos.
Then we can solve the puzzle. On the Protos, one day before Passover, Disciples prepared
the Last Supper, and when the evening came, it was the evening of Passover and they had the supper. Lord Jesus was arrested in that night and in the morning He was sentenced to death, on the same day by Jewish Calendar, which was Passover. The Passover Lamb was slaughtered in the afternoon of the same day as Jesus was hung on the Cross, around the time when Jesus cried " Tetelestai"

So, Passover is not always used to represent the whole Feast period of DUB.
Rather, as we see in Luke 22:1, 7, Mt 26:17, DUB was used often to represent the whole Feast of DUB and Passover.
Strangely, in Acts 12:4, it was already DUB in the previous verse, but it mentioned the delay of Execution after Pascha. This Pascha must be after previously mentioned DUB.
Even this year the Passover is 27th March, then DUB ends on April 3 (Some people claim it is by 4th April), the next day is Easter April 4th.
2021 Feast Dates - The Messianic Light
So, the Easter is often around the end of DUB or right after DUB.
Now, let's imagine that Peter is arrested on the 31st March and it is already in the middle of DUB and the government say they are going to execute him after the Pascha?
Would you imagine that the execution will take place after the Passover? or after the Easter?
If it meant the after the end of DUB, it would have mentioned after the Days of Unleavened Bread because it was already mentioned in the previous verse.
But as we understand Pagan Festival is everywhere in the world and they celebrate Easter as if it is the Resurrection Day of Jesus. Likewise, even at the time of Acts 12:4, Ishtar Festival was everywhere in the Middle East and it was almost mixed with DUB or meant the end of DUB, then wouldn't it be called as Pascha because Assyrians called it Pasahu, Chaldeans called it Pischa, etc?

As we can read thru the facts that Tyndale translated Pascha into Ester, throughout the ages and centuries, the paganism surrounding Easter, Ishtar, Astarte, Asherah Artemis have been overwhelming in the spring festivals.

I would rather presume KJV translators dug into quite deep on this matter.

Thanks

Eliyahu

 

Hark,


Pascha appears 29 times in 27 verses.( Mark 14:12 and John 11:55 have it twice)

KJV translators translated it into Passover 28 times but into Easter only in Acts 12:4

Did they make mistakes in Acts 12:4 while they were inerrant in other verses? Hardly!

They rendered it into Easter because they found some contradiction there.

Indeed, Passover can represent the Feast of DUB and DUB can Passover as well.

However, everyone knows, if we go into detail and more specifically, Passover precedes Days of Unleavened Bread.

When KJV translators notice both DUB and Passover in 2 connecting verses, they must have found the difficulty to translate

the later one first and the first one after the later festival.


This year we have the Passover on March 27, and Days of Unleavened Bread end on April 3.

Passover: March 27, DUB: Mar 28-Apr 3, Easter: April 4, 2021


Assuming Peter is arrested on the first April which is already DUB, Government intends to execute Peter after Passover?

Imagine Festival Ishtar, Easter was celebrated all over Middle East as Easter is celebrated all over the world today, while DUB is not so much popular among the people today.

If Pascha means both Passover and Easter, and it was already during DUB, the day after the Pascha( Passover) means after Passover?

What about after Easter, the pagan festival which comes at the end of DUB or right after the DUB?

The main point is that people would have not noticed or have skipped the problem of contradiction if KJV had translated it into Passover.


In conclusion, apparently there is a certain contradiction in the sequence of the feasts in Acts 12:3-4 if we go into detail precisely.

We’d better avoid the conclusion that KJV translators simply made the mistakes because there is an apparent problem with the contradiction.

Even if Passover can represent the whole period of DUB feast, there is a danger ignoring the then current practice of the paganism, the Festival of Ishtar, Easter which usually comes at the end of DUB.

On the final day, God may clearly explain us the True meaning of it.


Eliyahu

 

Salty, in spite of your above post, it appears this thread did not get closed. You might want to take a look at that.

I noticed that because I came here to add the following information.

The English-to-Latin dictionary Promptorium Parvulorum Sive Clericorum first appeared circa 1440, and is attributed to Geoffrey the Grammarian, a friar who lived in Norfolk, England. In the 1865 printing at Archive.org (p. 143), we find Eesterne (Easter) means Pascha.