Featured The "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie" used by KJVOs is false.

That is a non answer.

 

Last eve I passed beside a blacksmith's door
And heard the anvil ring the vesper chime;
When looking in, I saw upon the floor,
Old hammers worn with beating years of time.

"How many anvils have you had," said I,
"To wear and batter these hammers so?"
"Just one," said he; then with a twinkling eye,
"The anvil wears the hammers out, you know."

And so, I thought, the anvil of God's Word,
For ages, skeptics blows have beat upon;
Yet, though the noise of falling blows was heard,
The anvil is unharmed - the hammers gone.
​

You too will pass.

 

Your own answer is a non answer.

 

And the scriptures plainly say that Adam & Eve are the two people God created and that we all descend from them.

Yea, right. British Israelism in American roby-garb does not a scriptural doctrine make.

Romans 2:1.

 

It is about both and I will prove it scripturally when I get time.The word of God is and has been tried and perseveres and the people of God, who in this case in Psa 12 is the remnant of Israel in the tribulation.

You are believing only in the message of God, and you have that wrong. You do not believe in the words and trying to convince you of anything with words is going to be difficult, if not impossible.

 

I did not know this but it makes sense since you mention it.

 

I will go along with you and for sale of discussion say everything you said is true. (I don't believe that, but just for sale of discussion)

How can you prove the KJV is That version that is correct? Which KJV version?

 

No it is not.

 

That is not going along with me. Do you believe God has a message for mankind that is expressed in the words of men, who optimize and translate with dynamic equivalence what you say you believe is the inspired words of God, while saying you believe the statement in Psalm 12 that the words of the LORD are pure words? And declare that no doctrine is compromised in any translation except the KJV.

There is no use talking to you if you give me an honest answer to this question. You do not believe in the words of God so you have a different definition for the word "pure" than do I.

We are not talking about the same thing.

 

Do you try to ignore the facts that the KJV has many added words for which it has no original-language words of Scripture, that the KJV does not provide any English word for some original-language words of Scripture in its underlying texts, or that the KJV has some non-literal, non-word-for-word dynamic equivalent renderings, suggesting that you do not apply the same measures/standards to it that you suggest for other English translations?

Perhaps your inconsistent view believes the same thing that you accuses others of believing.

 

Perhaps you in effect believe the same thing since you have not indicated that you believe in the actual, specific, exact preserved words of God as found in the preserved original-language manuscript copies of Scripture.

How can anyone convince you of anything with words if you make use of inconsistent, unjust measures/standards concerning the words of God given by inspiration to the prophets and apostles?

 

No it is not what? More of a non answer.
Psalms 12:6 speaks of God's word. Psalms 12:7 speaks of persons. The translation of "them" in verse 7 is of the Hebrew "him."

 

A person cannot try the word of God until he himself is tried by the word of God. God makes promises. We receive them but we are tried by them when we obey them by faith. Following is an example. If one remembers God had said he was going to raise up a great nation through the son of Abraham and Sarah. They were past child bearing years when the miracle occurred and Isaac was born. A few years later God told Abraham to offer Isaac as a sacrifice in spite of the fact that he knew the promise of God through this son. Could it be accomplished if he obeyed God. The human answer is no but God was trying Abraham and God knew what he would do. Abraham did not.

So, there was a double trial going on when Abraham offered Isaac and this is what is said about him.

Heb 11:17 By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
18 Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called:
19 Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.

Psa 105:17 He sent a man before them, even Joseph, who was sold for a servant:
18 Whose feet they hurt with fetters: he was laid in iron:
19 Until the time that his word came: the word of the Lord tried him.
20 The king sent and loosed him; even the ruler of the people, and let him go free.

Here is a psalm with the exact same time frame as Psa 12.

Psa 66:8 O bless our God, ye people, (Israel remnant) and make the voice of his praise to be heard:
9 Which holdeth our soul in life, and suffereth not our feet to be moved.

10 For thou, O God, hast proved us: thou hast tried us, as silver is tried. (we know it is seven times from Psalm 12 and the Revelation)
11 Thou broughtest us into the net; thou laidst affliction upon our loins.

12 Thou hast caused men to ride over our heads; we went through fire and through water: but thou broughtest us out into a wealthy place.
13 I will go into thy house with burnt offerings: I will pay thee my vows,
14 Which my lips have uttered, and my mouth hath spoken, when I was in trouble.

2 Sam 22:31 As for God, his way is perfect; the word of the Lord is tried: he is a buckler to all them that trust in him.

Psalm 12 is in the context of the above.

 

You gotta tell me which KJV version first. Also gotta tell me why it's the only correct version. We can then deal with properly dividing it.

 

As I understand it, the 7 times according to kjvo purists refers to previous English versions ending with the KJV. The "perfect" Kjv being the 1905 Cambridge version, at least by some of them.