Featured A KJ-Only church.

Casting aside the cult-specific false translations, I'll be the first to admit some are made to make money, but others are made because a translator or group of translators believe they can make a better translation than the existing ones.

But some KJVOs holler that people who wouldn't dare change a word of a Shakespeare play don't think twice about changing the wording of a bible verse.

BIG difference!

Shakespeare died in 1616, & his works were frozen in time from then on; no one else could make a William Shakespeare playnor change his work. But GOD IS ALIVE & IN CHARGE! He still superintends His own word.

Shakespeare's plays were for entertainment, while God's word is the "owner's manual" for Spaceship Earth.

We have copies of Shakespeare's plays written in his lifetime, usually by the management of actor/actress troupes, and one surviving copy he wrote himself. AND FOR ENGLISH USERS, THEY DON'T HAVE TO BE TRANSLATED! (There's great debate among those who make scripts of his plays in other languages!)

And a great many Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek words have multiple English meanings, so when there's no contextual help, a translator must choose from among several different meanings for a given word or phrase. The AV makers indicated they had done JUST THAT, & others may make different choices, which would be just-as-correct.

Again, the KJVO myth goes "PFFFTT!" in the face of FACTS.

 

I have not been ambiguous in my statements. I am assured that the KJV is the word of God and I study it as such. You Greek and Hebrew speakers will have to deal with it.

 

When has the majority ever been right?

 

This is not sound doctrine. The mixed multitude that left Egypt with Israel were a small number who agreed to be as Israel and obey their laws.There are not 12 tribes of Israel and then another called the tribe of the mixed multitude. These gentiles were incorporated into the 12 tribes, but Israel never became evangelists to the nations in the OT. God gave Israel gentile lands and many times sent them out to kill gentiles.

And, salvation is a NT doctrine. We are told there is no forgiveness of sins without the shedding of blood. A sinner cannot be saved, as the NT defines salvation, until the blood of the Lamb is shed. This is the only agent that can wash away sin. Israel had a sacrificial system designed by God in the OT where the blood of certain animals was shed and served to reconciled the sinner temporarily, but it could not take away sin. Animals were a fit type of Jesus Christ because they were innocent. They could not sin. Therefore the sacrifice was sinless.

Gentiles had no such sacrificial system and therefore could not approach God in their sins. They never had a blood sacrifice to offer God, until Jesus came and God opened up the door of faith (read Eph 2:10-13 here) to them in Acts 10 and in the year 40 AD when he sent Peter with the keys of the kingdom of God. He had received these keys from Jesus Christ in Matt 16 and it was he that preached the first Christian sermon to the Jews in Acts 2 and to the gentiles in Acts 10, some 10 years later and it was Paul in about AD 44 that explained it as the open door of faith to the gentiles.

Acts 14:26 And thence sailed to Antioch (the sending church), from whence they had been recommended to the grace of God for the work which they fulfilled.
27 And when they were come, and had gathered the church together, they rehearsed all that God had done with them, and how he had opened the door of faith unto the Gentiles.

Wrong. Jesus did not save anyone during his earthly ministry and if the Jews and Romans had been able to keep him in that tomb no one would have ever been saved. Salvation depends on that resurrection.

But you say, what did happen to sinners in the OT times? Men were JUSTIFIED by their faith, not by believing in the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ, because that was far into the future. So then, faith in what? Faith in God and what he said to them. Romans 3 is the great discourse on justification and Romans 4 illustrates the truth of Ro 3 by giving 3 examples of justifying faith. He gave Abraham as an example before the law of Moses was given, he gave David under the law, and he gave us believers after the law was finished and post resurrection. All men who were justified were justified by believing what God said to them. I can prove this without a shadow of a doubt to someone who believes words as written.

Now, here is as important a statement as there is in the whole bible in this context of justification. Read it carefully.

Romans 8:33 Who shall lay any thing to the charge of God's elect? It is God that justifieth.
34 Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.

Justification of God comes before salvation from sin because God the Father is before Christ in the unfolding drama of redemption. The are certain functions of the Godhead in the salvation of sinners and there is an order to it. God is judge of all the earth and it is he alone who can justify a sinner. Sinners were justified by God for 4000 years before a single one was saved and had their sins washed away. He justifies sinners when they believe what he says to them. It is Christ though who died for sinners and it is he that has dealt with the sin problem that all men have. He paid the penalty for it, which is suffering and death. He shed his blood and emptied himself of his Spirit. After God justifies the sinner on the basis that he believes what the Father says about the Son giving life, the third person of the trinity indwells that justified believer and cleanses him of his sins by applying the blood.

Rev 1:5 And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,
YOU HAD BETTER CHECK. SOME BIBLES DO NOT SAY THIS.

Titus 3:4 But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,
5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he (God) saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
6 Which he (God) shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
7 That being justified by his (God's) grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

Justifying faith would not deliver a sinner unless there was a way to separate him from his sins. And there is. It is Jesus Christ, who is the way.
___________________

Because the providence of God had allowed the exaltation of the Greek culture, under which the 10 tribes would be most influenced in the time of Christ tin Asia Minor to bring about the fulfillment of prophecy concerning them. Hosea 1:9 Then said God, Call his name Loammi: for ye are not my people, and I will not be your God.
10 Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God.

In order for a person, any person, to be the son of God, it requires a new birth. Men are not just sons of God by a zap. There cannot be a new birth unless the Spirit of God indwells a man. The Spirit of God cannot indwell a man unless his sin is washed away, and the sin is not forgiven until he is justified by the judge. All things were in place for God to keep his covenant promises to Israel in the first century if they would have believed.

Visitation by other religions is not the definition of "trodden down of the gentiles" in this context.

That is not sound doctrine. That period is in the context of AGES to come.

Ephesians 2:7
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.Jesus Christ brought the dispensation of the law to and end at his dearth, and the age to an end in 70 AD with the dispersion of his people into the nations.See Rom 10:4 and Gal 4:4.

Well, neither did he not say he was going to translate his bible into scores of English translations at the end of the age like you intimate.

Irrelevant mich mash.

That is your mantra but where does God say that? Inquiring minds want to know.

 

That is a yes. I do not make any apology for my confidence that God, who dwells on the earth in the person of the Holy Spirit, can translate his own words into a different language, and that he has. We have precedence. He did it in the NT when the OT quotations were translated to Greek and words were added by him. The Spirit even quoted what a prophet in the OT said that is nowhere written. He still called it scripture because it is now written in the NT. If I could think where it is I would quote it, but maybe later.

 

You would have had more credibility without this silly post. You are going down hill fast.

 

Verse 29 of 51
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29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: 30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Who do you think is being addressed here, and in what context?

 

His coming to do what?

 

I am assured that the NASV, NKJV, ESV, Geneva, "Great Bible", Tyndale's, & others, are also God's word. Which KJV edition do you view as "the one"?

 

No, the unsound doctrines are yours. The gentiles who live among the ancient Israelis and worshipped God same as the Israelis certainly went to paradise, same as did the Israelis, long as their hearts were toward God & they weren't simply going thru the motions. (That applied to the Israelis also.) Andbeing justified meant their sins were to be forgiven by Jesus after His resurrection, same as were those of the gentiles who had faith in Him during His ministry.

You, and many other KJVOs, have sustained a theory of mine that believing one false doctrine of faith/worship keeps a foot in the door for other false doctrines to come in. It was evident earlier that you're in thrall to the KJVO myth, and now you're showing your belief in other false doctrines. It's true that it no longer matters how the ancients came to God, as we are now justified & saved by Jesus, but there were a number of non-Israelis justified in God's sight before Jesus became Savior. But they, & the ancient Israelis alike, had to have their hearts set on believing & obeying God. Thus were some gentiles justified during Jesus' ministry, and saved when He became Savior.

And of course, many truths are mish-mash to a KJVO, who can't see past the myth he/she embraces.

 

But of course. Many of you KJVOs are so head-over-heels in thrall to your myth that you can no longer see the truth.

 

To take over the throne (rulership) of David, to cast the antichrist & false prophet alive into hell, empower an angel to banish Satan, and to rule the world with a rod of iron for 1K years. (The rapture will occur earlier; it's NOT His 2nd coming.)

 

Back to the OP of this thread-A KJVO church has at least one false doctrine, the KJVO myth, and often has others as well, as one FD keeps a foot in the door for others to enter. Thus, I won't set foot in a church I know is KJVO.

Now, this does NOT include churches whose pastors preach from the KJV; it only includes those who follow the false notion that the KJV is the only valid English Bible version.

 

Your KJV uses the "Majority Text".