Featured Make believe Eschatology

Jesus hasn't been back yet, except Spiritually, whenever/wherever two or more are gathered in His name.

 

I am not sure if I posted this here or not. It would have been several years ago. I did a series of articles on the 70 Weeks that begins at the proper date IMV of 454 BC and referenced to Nehemiah 2:1.
Old Greek History & Daniel’s Seventy Weeks

 

Jesus sacrifice on the cross made an end of all the atonements for sin and he brought in everlasting righteousness at the cross

 

The rapture happens on the last day jn6:37-44....I will raise them up on the last day...repeated 3x

 

But that’s not what Daniel 9:24 says...

finish the transgression and make an end to sin.

I totally understand Jesus make the atonement for sin ... past, present, future. If future, that means 30 AD didn’t end the transgression, but DID hold the Provision for being cleansed.

also says seals the vision and the prophesy.

If Jesus is Returning, physically, and that hasn’t happened yet, then the prophesy is not yet sealed ...

Besides ... the prophesy also includes the revelation of the antichrist ... the breaking of the confirmed covenant 1/2 way into it ...

Has that happened too?

It’s fascinating to me there’s such a radical doctrine out there which suggests all this has already happened ... and therefore Jesus is just late ... or this is Heaven now ... or whatever.

With all that has happened in the last couple of years, I’m QUITE sure this isn’t the post rapture reign.

 

I agree ... then how does the last 1900 plus years happen?

The tares are taken first ... where have they been held these 1900 years?

The removal of the restrainer ... how has that happened if the prophesy is fulfilled?

 

The tares are taken in judgment just as in the day of Noah. mt.2439
In the passage and Luke it says they knew not until the flood came and took them all the way the ones that were taken were taken in judgment not in a rapture

 

I agree.
So given the rapture hasn’t ocurred yet … and the parable clearly indicates a short amount of time between gathering the tares and harvesting the wheat … (same day) …

I understand THAT DAY of Dan 9:24 has yet to dawn.

 

TW,
Many of us were taught those things you hold.
Then you learn others have seen a better way.

 

The answer to your question,which was previously given to me when I wrote the article, prompted me to do a follow-up. The date you cite is, I believe, erroneous. Here is the article:
History of an Error

 

I believe they did see what Jesus said they would see.
Jerusalem surrounded by armies ,the abomination of desolation,the temple destroyed not one stone left upon another,the sign of the Son of man in Heaven,The coming in the clouds in judgment against apostate Jerusalem.

 

Jesus does this,not the antichrist.

 

I couldn't have said it better, Brother.

 

Full preterism views Jesus having literally come in AD 70. Partial preterism views this to be a "coming in judgment" in the same way that God "came in judgment" many times in the Old Testament.

I must disagree, Brother. It's the same in Revelation 1:7. While one translation is to literally see with our eyes, this also carries the idea of understanding, just as it does in our day. But to be sure, they saw judgment come upon Jerusalem.

 

How do you know He didn't switch between literal and symbolic language? Especially since Jesus was quoting a passage from Daniel that had symbolic meaning. You are stuck on the notion that this is about future worldwide events, so you will never see their fulfillment. I maintain these were fulfilled between AD 66-70. Obviously, since we hold such different views of eschatology, we will just keep repeating our same points over and over.

 

Have you ever noticed that Daniel is told to seal up the vision and the prophecy (because it was a long way off), but in Revelation 22:10, John was told not to seal up the words of the prophecy - because the time is near. There is plenty of evidence that Revelation was probably written in the mid to late 60s, not the mid 90s. If this is true (as I believe it is), this clearly points to the AD 70 destruction of Jerusalem.

The "firm covenant" of Daniel 9:27 was made at the Last Supper. The "prince" of verse 26 was the Roman general Titus, who led the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple. Incidentally, "antichrist" only appears 4 times (3 in 1 John and 1 in 2 John). This is a description, not a person nor a system. The covenant was broken at the Crucifixion. Anyway, that was my two cents worth.