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The Sovereign will of God

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Judith

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Let me say upfront that I believe in God's election for the saved. However, that is not this discussion. My question is this. In Gen. 2 we read the following;
15 And the LORD God took the man, and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it.

16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:

17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.

My question is focused on verse 17. It reads "for in the day that thou eatest there of thou shalt surely die." Was election involved in the eating of that tree since based on that passage it is pre-supposed.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
My question is focused on verse 17. It reads "for in the day that thou eatest there of thou shalt surely die." Was election involved in the eating of that tree since based on that passage it is pre-supposed.
There are different views regarding God's elect. [Matthew 24:31, Matthew 22:14.] Since I understand that term pertains to God's saved, I cannot understand the term to be in regards to the fall.
 

Marooncat79

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That’s a very good question Judith

1. We know from the scriptures that creation was good, very good (Genesis)

2. We know from scripture that God has created vessels of honor and vessels of dishonor (Romans)

3. Adam and Eve had true free will before the fall

4. We know that Christ was the Lamb of God slain before the foundation of the earth.

The question then becomes how did God decree the fall?

Was God totally hands off? Some suggest this; however, that leaves chance and fate (which in the grand scheme of things absolutely nothing ie there is truly no such thing). So this is a fallacy

Did God decree part of the fall? Ok,? what part/s did He decree vs Non-Decree? Scripture never addresses that scenario, so it too is a fallacy

Did God decree all things concerning the Fall? The answer is yes. Nothing happens in which God did not decree it so, or else He is not God.

Scripture tells us in many places that God rules over His Creation including the affairs of men or in Daniel, we see a King eating like the beasts of the field. Why? Because God decreed it.

so, since the fall election should be seen as an act of Gods love towards some resulting in Salvation.

In other, we see that they were not elect unto Salvation ie They are left to their own sin resulting in damnation. Ex here is God saying that He raised up Pharaoh in order to exalt Himself.

So the answer is Yes. God chose (elected) to save A & E when He rejected their own fig leaves and provided them skins. We see at that point that they were elected to salvation as a result of Gods mercy and grace

salvation is exactly that, God doing for us what we cannot do ourselves. That is why the new birth that Jesus talks about in John 3 is imperative for salvation (the new birth leads to repentance and faith by Gods people which is why they are called Grace Gifts)

God could have and should have condemned them to hell (just as He should all of us); however, He has chosen to redeem a remnant unto Himself. We should understand (my opinion) that the New Birth and the resulting Faith and Repentance are gifts from God and result from Gods election of His people.

I would encourage you to read the 1689 On the Decrees of God. It will probably state it better here Than I did.


I hope this helps
 

atpollard

Well-Known Member
My question is focused on verse 17. It reads "for in the day that thou eatest there of thou shalt surely die." Was election involved in the eating of that tree since based on that passage it is pre-supposed.
I think that just OMNISCIENCE is involved … God did not fore-choose them to eat and die (it just did not catch God by surprise).
 

Deacon

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…OMNISCIENCE is involved … God did not fore-choose them to eat and die (it just did not catch God by surprise).
“For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love he predestined us for adoption to sonship through Jesus Christ, in accordance with his pleasure and will—to the praise of his glorious grace…” Ephesians 1.4-6a NIV

We were chosen before creation, …God had a plan.
That plan was in accordance with his will.
The plan was to bring praise to his grace, through Jesus.
Without the fall none of this would have happened.

Now did Adam have a choice, was he able not to eat of the fruit of the tree?

Rob
 

Eternally Grateful

Active Member
Let me say upfront that I believe in God's election for the saved. However, that is not this discussion. My question is this. In Gen. 2 we read the following;
15 And the LORD God took the man, and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it.

16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:

17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.

My question is focused on verse 17. It reads "for in the day that thou eatest there of thou shalt surely die." Was election involved in the eating of that tree since based on that passage it is pre-supposed.
What God did was give free will. He gave an option. And he told them a consequence would be given if they made the wrong choice.

You can not have a relationship with someone, unless you give that someone free will. If they can not chose their own will. Then you have a forced relationship. Which will never grow into a loving relationship. And will fail to benefit both sides.
 

Marooncat79

Well-Known Member
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What God did was give free will. He gave an option. And he told them a consequence would be given if they made the wrong choice.

You can not have a relationship with someone, unless you give that someone free will. If they can not chose their own will. Then you have a forced relationship. Which will never grow into a loving relationship. And will fail to benefit both sides.


Again, the new birth is something that God does to us and for us -with nothing in nor of ourselves motivating God. It is of His free love and mercy.

after our hearts have been changed, we respond in faith and repentance (again, they are Grace Gifts from God).

as to the last comment - “and fail to benefit both sides”. There is absolutely nothing man can do to benefit God.
 

kyredneck

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Now did Adam have a choice, was he able not to eat of the fruit of the tree?

Eve was tricked, deceived by the serpent. Adam was not deceived; he made a deliberate choice. He chose to join Eve in disobedience. He died to have his bride. Nice little type there of what the second Adam did to have His bride.
 

Judith

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Marooncat79 Thank you for the reply. I have to agree with your answer at least in part. I would only add or clarify with the following. I realize that election/predestination is VERY difficult subject to receive by most. The problem is that scripture clearly teaches it. We either have to outright reject the idea, reject scripture, or we have to change the meaning of the term(s) elect/predestination to mean something they do not.

The word elect means to be chosen, determined by another. In this case it is God doing the choosing and He does it totally apart from anything we do, and he does it before or as some would like from the foundation of the world.

The words DO NOT mean we are elect because we get saved. The words mean we get saved because we are elect, chosen to do so.

Also, part of my take on this is a little different than some others who accept God's election. Often times it is taught that Adam and Eve had free will, but we do not. I do not agree with that, but I am open for correction if a reasonable argument can be made.

I certainly do agree that Adam and Eve had free will, but I disagree that we do not. I believe that everyone has free will, but because we are born lost, spiritually dead, we will only exercise it in one direction, away from God.

On the other hand, the elect are given the ability through regeneration to exercise it toward God unto salvation and everyone that is elect will exercise that ability unto salvation.

Some feel that the idea of election forces man to surrender thus they reject election. I do not believe that. I do not believe that in election God violates man's volition. I believe that He simply gives the sinner the ability to make the correct choice and because of the draw towards God we always choose salvation. Like a blind starving man who cannot smell he never finds food, but if given the ability to smell he finds it and takes it. He is not forced, but he is drawn by his hunger if given the ability to smell. I believe God calling/draw works something like that. We are not forced. We are simply given the ability to find and receive what we are craving.

So as I said I do believe that we all have free will at birth, but because of our fallen nature it always will lead to eternal death (hell) for the non-elect and those who are regenerated will accept so that they can accept the truth and become sons and daughters of God by exercising their free will.

lastly, I would add this. I hear some use the term "born again" as a precursor to salvation. I believe that is incorrect. I believe the proper term should be regeneration, not the new birth. I believe that they are two separate and different events. Regeneration being the given ability to respond to the call/draw of God, the ability to exercise our free will to that call/draw, and new birth being that which happens at salvation due to our repentance toward God and faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, as we receive the indwelling Holy Spirit. I see that as the new birth.

I do not believe that we are made alive in the sense of the indwelling Spirit before we are saved. If we are it would mean some lost, yet to be saved, elect, are walking around with the indwelling Spirit who are still in our sin until we are actually saved, and I do not believe that.

As I said I am open to correction, but at this point this is where I stand. Thank you for the reply. God bless





That’s a very good question Judith

1. We know from the scriptures that creation was good, very good (Genesis)

2. We know from scripture that God has created vessels of honor and vessels of dishonor (Romans)

3. Adam and Eve had true free will before the fall

4. We know that Christ was the Lamb of God slain before the foundation of the earth.

The question then becomes how did God decree the fall?

Was God totally hands off? Some suggest this; however, that leaves chance and fate (which in the grand scheme of things absolutely nothing ie there is truly no such thing). So this is a fallacy

Did God decree part of the fall? Ok,? what part/s did He decree vs Non-Decree? Scripture never addresses that scenario, so it too is a fallacy

Did God decree all things concerning the Fall? The answer is yes. Nothing happens in which God did not decree it so, or else He is not God.

Scripture tells us in many places that God rules over His Creation including the affairs of men or in Daniel, we see a King eating like the beasts of the field. Why? Because God decreed it.

so, since the fall election should be seen as an act of Gods love towards some resulting in Salvation.

In other, we see that they were not elect unto Salvation ie They are left to their own sin resulting in damnation. Ex here is God saying that He raised up Pharaoh in order to exalt Himself.

So the answer is Yes. God chose (elected) to save A & E when He rejected their own fig leaves and provided them skins. We see at that point that they were elected to salvation as a result of Gods mercy and grace

salvation is exactly that, God doing for us what we cannot do ourselves. That is why the new birth that Jesus talks about in John 3 is imperative for salvation (the new birth leads to repentance and faith by Gods people which is why they are called Grace Gifts)

God could have and should have condemned them to hell (just as He should all of us); however, He has chosen to redeem a remnant unto Himself. We should understand (my opinion) that the New Birth and the resulting Faith and Repentance are gifts from God and result from Gods election of His people.

I would encourage you to read the 1689 On the Decrees of God. It will probably state it better here Than I did.


I hope this helps
 
Last edited:

JD731

Well-Known Member
The words DO NOT mean we are elect because we get saved. The words mean we get saved because we are elect, chosen to do so.

Some things never change. I was struck again, when I read this, with the realization that Reformed teaching gets everything exactly backwards, and here again is proof.

None of your physical ancestors who lived before the NT era were elect, not one. Salvation in the biblical sense is a NT doctrine. If it were not so, then our wonderful Lord Jesus would not have had to die for sins in the beginning of the 5th millennium of human history.

So, I take exception to your statement and would have it read like this;

"The words DO NOT mean we get saved because we are elect. The words mean we are elected when we get saved by faith. The reason for this is because there are three members of the Godhead and each have a different role in salvation affairs, and only one member does the electing, God the Father, when he gives his Spirit, who is a member of the Godhead as well, and it is because of the work of Jesus Christ in redemption as a man, who himself is a member of the Godhead.

I know discussing this subject is not the primary object of your thread and so this is my only post here on the subject, but I might start a new thread and we can then discuss it freely.

There is a corporate election.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
The words DO NOT mean we are elect because we get saved. The words mean we get saved because we are elect, chosen to do so.
@Judith answer this:
Matthew 22:14, ". . . For many are called, but few are | elect. | " Note: εκλεκτοι - eklektoi - elect. More are called than elect. How is it many are called who will not be or are not elect?
 

atpollard

Well-Known Member
Now did Adam have a choice, was he able not to eat of the fruit of the tree?
Yes, Adam had a choice.
The second question is more metaphysical and philosophical … like Schrödinger's cat. Adam did eat the fruit, so questions about whether God COULD have allowed history to unfold differently are forever “hypothetical”. Adam DID eat it (so the cat IS dead).

If Adam had no choice (God MADE Adam sin), then God is the author of sin (contrary to scripture) … is that your claim?
God created a situation knowing that Adam would ultimately choose sin … thus Christ would redeem mankind for our good and His glory.
 

Judith

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I believe the "many" is simply stating the fact that every person that has ever lived is called in a general calling, but the only ones that will come are the chosen/elect.

@Judith answer this:
Matthew 22:14, ". . . For many are called, but few are | elect. | " Note: εκλεκτοι - eklektoi - elect. More are called than elect. How is it many are called who will not be or are not elect?
 

37818

Well-Known Member
I believe the "many" is simply stating the fact that every person that has ever lived is called in a general calling, but the only ones that will come are the chosen/elect.
Do you have a Scripture for that? Or is that just an interpretation?
 

tyndale1946

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I believe the "many" is simply stating the fact that every person that has ever lived is called in a general calling, but the only ones that will come are the chosen/elect.

There is no scripture that talks about a general calling... Called eternally saved!... not called, not!... But don't pigeon hole God, he shows more mercy and abundant grace to those called, then those on here give him credit for... He does it his way not theirs... Brother Glen:)

Romans 8:28 And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.

29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
That is my understanding on the subject based on what the bible teaches overall.
The only thing that Bible teaches overall is that the the elect are who are the saved. Such as Matthew 24:31, Matthew 22:14, 1 Peter 1:2. The rest is interpretation.
 

tyndale1946

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The only thing that Bible teaches overall is that the the elect are who are the saved. Such as Matthew 24:31, Matthew 22:14, 1 Peter 1:2. The rest is interpretation.

I think you left quite a few out... There is interpretation and also misinterpretation!... Few chosen for Heaven?... Think again?... Brother Glen:)

Revelation 7:9 After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, and palms in their hands;

10 And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb.

Scripture NEVER contradicts itself, the contradiction is in the reader, never the writer!
 
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