37818
Well-Known Member
Genesis one sure is prophecy. How else would Moses know?Genesis one . . . <Snjp> . . . is not a prophecy, so it has no need to be interpretated.
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Genesis one sure is prophecy. How else would Moses know?Genesis one . . . <Snjp> . . . is not a prophecy, so it has no need to be interpretated.
How would Moses kmow what?Genesis one sure is prophecy. How else would Moses know?
Revmitchell, I understand you cannot defend your position. I understand your position and David Kent has clearly understood your position.
You can leave the conversation, but note that you have not provided any substantial argument for the removal of the church before the Tribulation. Certainly, it is not found in Revelation as every chapter in Revelation shows us the Church as it goes through the Tribulation.
Have you heard of Gematria? It is a method of using numbers to convey symbols in ancient writings. Matthew uses it in Matthew 1:17. If you do a literal counting of the generations you will see that Matthew left out some people. Have you ever asked why? Why wasn't Matthew being literal?
Genesis one that you quoted is not a prophecy, so it has no need to be interpretated.[sic]
Thanks but my commment wasn't a response to you but to 37818. I didn't saays there is no pr, ophesy in Genesis.I did not quote Genesis one. I made reference to Genesis 3:15 which is a prophecy.
Uh no you don't or you would not ask such questions as :
"Do you take every statement in Revelation and in the Bible literally? Certainly no one does. However, futurists often use literal interpretation to mean verses they interpret literally against verses they don't interpret literally, and, they are the ones who get to decide what is literal and what isn't."
This question shows you do not understand the literal position. Someone who does would not ask this question. Then it appears you have take some sort of interaction with someone else and assigned it to me. Apparently your position is weak and now you have to reach out to a broader group to support your position or criticism. You do not get to assign that to me.
This is a problem with these debates. Folks like you want to win a debate rather than have a discussion and in doing so you make hyperbolic statements like this over everything those in opposition your position. I have made a substantial argument. Just because you do not agree with it doesn't relegate to to that category. Your inability to recognize that shows a lack of a level of developed ability to discuss these issues.
Sigh, just because there was not an exact counting does not prove a non-literal interpretation is required. Matthew was using seasons of times under the Jews. His point was to communicate those literal times of seasons or dispensations that point to Christ's birth.
I am fully aware of the dispensationalist view having been brought in the Plymouth Brethren and leaving it in my 30s
I have also studied the history of the movement, from its beginning with Edward Irving in 1825 who got the futurist teaching
from Jesuit Manuel Lacunza who wrote under a false name of Juan Josepat Ben Ezra to hide the fact that it was from a Catholic source and to aid the deception, the pope banned the book. The teaching of Irving was confirmed by some of his prophets "speaking in the power". The prophets pronounced that the rapture would be in 1260 days from January 1832 and they gathered together in July 1835 to await the event.
This was before John Darby got involved.
I have often found that if you ask a dispensationalist a question they they will accuse you of not believing the scripture and walk away.
The teaching certainly had an illustious history.
Thanks but my commment wasn't a response to you but to 37818.
I didn't saays there is no pr, ophesy in Genesis.
Read Revelations 7:1-4 They are the servants of God.Reference?
Did you ever stop to think that my statement, "Do you take every statement in Revelation and in the Bible literally? Certainly no one does. However, futurists often use literal interpretation to mean verses they interpret literally against verses they don't interpret literally, and, they are the ones who get to decide what is literal and what isn't." is meant to show you that you don't hold to a literal interpretation when the text reveals that it is not to be taken literally.Uh no you don't or you would not ask such questions as :
"Do you take every statement in Revelation and in the Bible literally? Certainly no one does. However, futurists often use literal interpretation to mean verses they interpret literally against verses they don't interpret literally, and, they are the ones who get to decide what is literal and what isn't."
This question shows you do not understand the literal position. Someone who does would not ask this question. Then it appears you have take some sort of interaction with someone else and assigned it to me. Apparently your position is weak and now you have to reach out to a broader group to support your position or criticism. You do not get to assign that to me.
This is a problem with these debates. Folks like you want to win a debate rather than have a discussion and in doing so you make hyperbolic statements like this over everything those in opposition your position. I have made a substantial argument. Just because you do not agree with it doesn't relegate to to that category. Your inability to recognize that shows a lack of a level of developed ability to discuss these issues.
Sigh, just because there was not an exact counting does not prove a non-literal interpretation is required. Matthew was using seasons of times under the Jews. His point was to communicate those literal times of seasons or dispensations that point to Christ's birth.
Read Revelations 7:1-4 They are the servants of God.
MB-
Thanks but my commment wasn't a response to you but to 37818I did not quote Genesis one. I made reference to Genesis 3:15 which is a prophecy.
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