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The Biblical Propitiation Of God's Wrath, and PSA.

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Even in John 3:16 the world God so loved He saved it through Christ read verse 17 so that limits the scope of who the world is, it can't be those who are lost under the wrath of God.

And God's great love actually saved them He so loved read Ephesians 2:4-5 what does it say about His great love?
I think you may have missed my point.

If you read "so" in John 3:16 as "so much" you end up with a truth that is stated in other verses but you miss what John 3:16 means.

I have not argued against the fact rhat Christ gave His life for His sheep.

I am simply saying that 1 Jn 2:2 is saying something you are missing - not that your overall theology is wrong (or right).

Even if you read something that is biblical, that is true and correct doctrine, into a verse you would be missing what that verse is actually saying. What is said may be just as impirtant as the truth read into the passage.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
The mean of the word "propitiation is to turn aside or avoid something, particularly wrath or anger. I think this is evident in that it is in Christ we "escape the wrath to come". Jesus IS the Propitiation for the sins of the Wirld (the ONLY Propitiation).

But it is one thing to speak of propitiation and another entirely to speak of the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement. Penal Substitution Theory does not focus on propitiation but on a way the theory thinks wrath is turned from the wicked (by turning it to God's "Righteous One").

It would be an error to ignore Christ as the Propitiation for our sins, but it would be an equally abhorrent error to twist Scripture to fit the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement
You find the biblical concept of the Lamb of God taking upon himself as our sin bearer the wrath and condemnation due to all of us then as being abhorrent and pagan?

But what about truth?

Here you offer Albert Maryin and John Murray vs God's Word. Some will offer the Book of Mormon vs God's Word. Others Elken White vs God's Word.

We are Christians. Why the distain for Scripture? If Penal Substitution Theory were important and correct would it not be in "what is written???
Its in the bible, see isaiah 53, Romans, Galatians, etc

I have offered Scripture. You simply did not recognize it as Scripture (I just used quotation marks).

That said, I have not stated my view.....all I stated of my belief was that God is faithful to forgive those who repent (Ezekiel 18, Acts 3, 1 John 1, 2 Peter 3, . . .).

You have without any Scripture supporting your philosophy. You provided verses but then went on to state your theory which is unrelated to the verses you provided.

Bit I will give you a chance -

Provide a verse stating Jesus died instead of us.
Provide a verse stating Jesus experienced God's wrath.
Provide a verse stating that God cannot forgive sins based on repentance and belief.


I know you can find those things in the writings of the men you follow, but I do not recognize those men as the authority for my faith. Use the Bible.


Yes, I know both English and Greek. In both cases, both speak of Chriat.

While I studied Greek at the graduate level, I am mot sure you have. So let's just look at the English.

Here is the passage in question:

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Now, in the English language (and the Grerk) the topic is Christ as the Propitiation, not those who benefit from the propitiation. You should have picked up on this with the first verse (we have an Advocate, who IS the Propitiation for sins).

I get that English may be your second language. If so, I encourage you to get a transkation in your own language.

What you did was read into the passage by making assumptions. You want it to say something ir dies not say, so you pretend it does.

If English is your first language, and you simply struggle with the fundamental parts of the language (nouns, verbs, etc) then take the time to diagram sentences. Identify the subject, the adverbs, etc. It may help you to write them out (we had to in school).

If you the your time, diagram the sentences, identify the subject, etc. it may help you keep from making such elementary mistakes.


No, you are confused. The Apostolic Church is the church that existed during the time of the Apostles. They taught what was written in Scripture. The theories you are talking about came much later.

Anselm developed Substitution Theory which was focused on Jedus restoring the honor man robbed of God. Aquinas reformed Anselm's theory, replacing honor with merit.

Aquinas want a bit more in detail. Until Aquinas nobody entertained the idea that Jesus could be punished instead of sinners. Aquinas developed a system where (he believed) an innocent person could justly be punished insteadbof a guilty person provided both parties were willing and the punishment was not the punishment due the crime committed.

Calvin (a lawyer by education) reformed Aquinas' theory by replacing merit with justice, and satisfactory punishment with simple punishment.

All three were based on Augustines error. Augustine developed what became the Catholic doctrine of sin. But this was based on the Vulgate which mistranslated "eph hō" as "in quo".


History is important. As you demonstrate with your ignorance of history (which is strange as we have the documdnts) is that by ignoring history it repeats itself.

This is why you can only rely on writings of mem who write what you believe rather than God's Word.


I may interpret some passages incorrectly, but at least I am sticking to Scripture.


Thank you for the information. I am more interested, however, in what God said.

Jehovah Witnesses believe their theologians correct. Mormons believe their theologians correct. I get that you believe the men you follow are correct in their additions to Scripture.

I have no issue with much of what you have posted.

The issue I have is when what you posted teaches unbiblical ideas.

For example -

We all believe that Christ died for our sins and we were purchased by His blood.

But Penal Substitution theorists merely use that truth to prop up their theory. They change it to Jesus dying instead of us, suffering God's wrath, etc.

That is not exposition. That is eisegesis.

Penal Substitution Theory adds to Scripture. The theory was created via reforming another theory (which h was created by reforming another theory).

Try reading the Bible without using the theory. What is actually written in God's Word is complete and makes sence. All Penal Substitution Theory does is offer a theory which os different from Scripture and different from traditional Chriatianity.

I can say your theory is unbiblical because it is foreign to the actual text of Scripture.

You cannot say my position is unbiblical because it is what is written in Scripture.


Years ago I discussed this and was condemned for using too much Scripture without adding to it
The charge was "all you do is quote the Bible". Guilty as charged.

It is not my fault that penal substitution theorists believe Scripture does not make sense. The Spirit guides those of us who believe and opens up Scripture - not bia exposition but by a realization Scripture itself makes sence. Even though interpretations differ we rely on God's Word (different focuses and interpretations of some verses).
You need to use more honest words than exposition. Penal Substitution Theory adds what is not there and denies what is there.
By what basis can God remain Holy and save lost sinners though? Where and when how did our their sin debt obligation go away?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
You find the biblical concept of the Lamb of God taking upon himself as our sin bearer the wrath and condemnation due to all of us then as being abhorrent and pagan?
I am saying that in 1 Jn 2:2 the word "Propitiation" is referring to Jesus Himself. The actual Greek word can mean expiation, propitiation, or atoning sacrifice. But it is speaking specifically of Jesus Himself. Verse 1 deals witg those who are in Christ have an Advocate in Him.

Its in the bible, see isaiah 53, Romans, Galatians, etc
Except it isn't. People like yo say "it's cover to cover" or pick a book or the favorite Isaiah 53. But when it comes down to it, they can never find the passage that states Jesus experienced God's wrath instead of us.

By what basis can God remain Holy and save lost sinners though? Where and when how did our their sin debt obligation go away?
The only "debt obligation" mentioned is the Mosaic Law as a "certificate of debt". This was fulfilled by Christ and "nailed to a tree".

God's wrath "abides on the wicked." They will be "cast into the Lake of fire" (the "Second Death").

God can remain holy because God IS Holy. We are made "new creations", we "die to the flesh", "share in His death" are "made alive in the Spirit", God "removes our heart of stone and gives us a new heart", He "removes our old spirit and gives us a new spirit", He "puts His Spirit in us".

If you are wicked at Judgment then God's wrath will be on you and you will be cast into the Lake of Fire.
If you have been "purified" made "a new creation", "died to the flesh" then you are mot wicked and you will live.

I get the desire for an "easy-believism" faith. But it is wrong.
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
I think you may have missed my point.

If you read "so" in John 3:16 as "so much" you end up with a truth that is stated in other verses but you miss what John 3:16 means.

I have not argued against the fact rhat Christ gave His life for His sheep.

I am simply saying that 1 Jn 2:2 is saying something you are missing - not that your overall theology is wrong (or right).

Even if you read something that is biblical, that is true and correct doctrine, into a verse you would be missing what that verse is actually saying. What is said may be just as impirtant as the truth read into the passage.
I think you are imagining things
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I think you are imagining things

Lol....no, I am reading it.

John makes the point that if you sin you have an Advocate in Christ, and Himself is the Propitiation for our sins.

Jesus is our Advocate (in Hebrews, our Mediator) who advocates for us based not on us or what we have or will do but based on Himself (His identity and work). He IS the Propitiation.

I know you don't not believe that to be true.

And I am not sure what, if not Jesus Himself, you believe to be the propitiation for your sins, but whatever it is it is not good enough. Christ alone is Himself the Propitiation for our sins.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Lol....no, I am reading it.

John makes the point that if you sin you have an Advocate in Christ, and Himself is the Propitiation for our sins.

Jesus is our Advocate (in Hebrews, our Mediator) who advocates for us based not on us or what we have or will do but based on Himself (His identity and work). He IS the Propitiation.

I know you don't not believe that to be true.

And I am not sure what, if not Jesus Himself, you believe to be the propitiation for your sins, but whatever it is it is not good enough. Christ alone is Himself the Propitiation for our sins.
he became our very sin offering as the very wrath of the Father against our sins were placed upon Him in full
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
he became our very sin offering as the very wrath of the Father against our sins were placed upon Him in full
That is not what 1 Jn 2:2 says.

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

John telks us (Christians) that he writes so that we may not sin.
BUT if we do we have an Advocate wirh the Father.
Jesus Christ is our Advocate.
He Himself is the Propitiation for our sins.

I do not know which verse you are quoting, but it is not 1 John 2:2.

What passage is it?
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Lol....no, I am reading it.

John makes the point that if you sin you have an Advocate in Christ, and Himself is the Propitiation for our sins.

Jesus is our Advocate (in Hebrews, our Mediator) who advocates for us based not on us or what we have or will do but based on Himself (His identity and work). He IS the Propitiation.

I know you don't not believe that to be true.

And I am not sure what, if not Jesus Himself, you believe to be the propitiation for your sins, but whatever it is it is not good enough. Christ alone is Himself the Propitiation for our sins.
You far out friend.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
That is not what 1 Jn 2:2 says.

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

John telks us (Christians) that he writes so that we may not sin.
BUT if we do we have an Advocate wirh the Father.
Jesus Christ is our Advocate.
He Himself is the Propitiation for our sins.

I do not know which verse you are quoting, but it is not 1 John 2:2.

What passage is it?
2 Corinthians 5"21
21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
2 Corinthians 5"21
21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness

I take it you interpret "sin" in the passage to mean "sin offering", which is a legitimate interpretation.

But where do you see "as the very wrath of the Father against our sins were placed upon Him in full"" in the verse????

What translation are you using?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
You far out friend.
Lol....I know you are just messing around, and it is fun (I know you are not that illiterate).

You know how that sentence actually reads. You just do not want to admit it on the public forum.

I do not really know if it is pride, that you simply can't admit you read into the passage, courage that you do not mind looking stupid, ignorance that you struggle with the structure of the English language, or thst you (like me) are just passing time.

But anybody reading this, who is familiar with sentence structure, knows that "He Himself is the Propitiation for our sins" is calling Jesus Christ the Propitiation for our sins.

Or expiation, or atoning sacrifice....depending on interpretation. But it is obvious that John is identifying Jesus as the ἱλασμός.
 
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