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Foreknown....found this on Monergism

Zaatar71

Active Member
You do realize than when speaking of God foreknowledge, exhaustive knowledge and Omniscience actually mean the same thing. Or perhaps you did not.

Well since God, being Omniscient, foreknows all who will exist and we are told He loves the whole world and desires that they all come to repentance why are not all saved? Could it be that He only saves those that freely trust in His risen Son?

You were correct God is not passive in salvation as only He can save you. That is biblical but what you
Once again, you show how error can and does take place as you conflate some biblical definition, with non biblical definition! Thanks again!
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
God foreknowledge ties into His exhaustive knowledge and Omniscience, as all those whom He elected and predestined He knew them in an intimate sense, as He was the cause behind their salvation, not just passive observer of it
Yet another nonsense claim, as foreknowledge refers to knowledge acquired or formulated in the past being utilized in the present, such as implementing a predetermined plan.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Thanks for offering your version ,so people can see the stark contrast!
Yes, post #14 provides the biblically based contextual meaning of foreknowledge. And it is very different than the view based on the meaning of the English word, found in poorly chosen versions.

The English word meaning is an awareness of something before it happens or exists, i.e. knowledge of the future, whereas the Greek word meanings refer to knowledge acquired or formulated in the past, being used in the present. As you said, stark contrast!
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
If you have to trust in man then you are trusting in the wrong thing.
Is that really True SH?
Acts 8: Was the Eunuch trusting in the wrong thing?
30 And Philip ran thither to him, and heard him read the prophet Esaias, and said, Understandest thou what thou readest?

31 And he said, How can I, except some man should guide me? And he desired Philip that he would come up and sit with him.

32 The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth:

33 In his humiliation his judgment was taken away: and who shall declare his generation? for his life is taken from the earth.

34 And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man?

35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
Yes, post #14 provides the biblically based contextual meaning of foreknowledge. And it is very different than the view based on the meaning of the English word, found in poorly chosen versions.

The English word meaning is an awareness of something before it happens or exists, i.e. knowledge of the future, whereas the Greek word meanings refer to knowledge acquired or formulated in the past, being used in the present. As you said, stark contrast!
That is not the biblical usage of the word however. Those who study it out come to learn.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Is that really True SH?
Acts 8: Was the Eunuch trusting in the wrong thing?
30 And Philip ran thither to him, and heard him read the prophet Esaias, and said, Understandest thou what thou readest?

31 And he said, How can I, except some man should guide me? And he desired Philip that he would come up and sit with him.

32 The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth:

33 In his humiliation his judgment was taken away: and who shall declare his generation? for his life is taken from the earth.

34 And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man?

35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.

You do notice that Philip pointed him to Jesus via scripture. Philip did not say well this is what I think scripture means and than change the words or meaning of words to fit his special understanding.
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
Care to point out the difference from a biblical perspective Z?
Yes Sh we can. Often what people look at is the biblical use of the word...to know. In the dictionary the first 5 definitions read like this;
To perceive with certainty; to understand clearly; to have a clear and certain perception of truth, fact, or any thing that actually exists. To know a thing pre

1.includes all doubt or uncertainty of its existence. We know what we see with our eyes, or perceive by other senses. We know that fire and water are different substances. We know that truth and falsehood express ideas incompatible with each other. We know that a circle is not a square. We do not know the truth of reports, nor can we always know what to believe.

2. To be informed of; to be taught. It is not unusual for us to say we know things from information, when we rely on the veracity of the informer.

3. To distinguish; as, to know one man from another. We know a fixed star from a planet by its twinkling.

4. To recognize by recollection, remembrance, representation or description. We do not always know a person after a long absence. We sometimes know a man by having seen his portrait, or having heard him described.

5. To be no stranger to; to be familiar. This man is well known to us.

But then it says this;

6.6. In scripture, to have sexual commerce with. Genesis 4:1.

Webster was a professed Christian, so he had some biblical background.

So, you look at how the bible uses the word...it speaks of an intimate knowledge of people, particularly The sexual intimacy and closeness of the marriage bed. Observe;
Gen4: And Adam ....knew... Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the Lord.

17 And Cain... knew... his wife; and she conceived, and bare Enoch

25 And Adam knew his wife again and she bare a son,

In the N.T. Mt1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:

25 And knew..... her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

All of these Husbands did not forget who their wives were...To know, to know again spoke of an intimate knowledge of the person.

So in Romans 8:29 ..For Whom He Did....Foreknow......enter into a loving relationship with, an intimate knowledge of. He also did Predestinate...Do you see it? God has a general knowledge of all men, all things because He is Omniscient.. He knows everything.
So this is not redundant, but rather an intentional Covenant Knowledge of all the children God the Father has given to the Son;
Heb.2:13 And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me.
Think it through...hope it helps!
 
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