Good wine is good wine. Good grape juice is good grape juice.
I do not believe the Bible lies. I do not believe the host called it good wine unless it were wine.
Jesus did not correct the host nor the men assisting him.
I say this as someone who does not drink.
It was good wine. And the symbolism and deeper meaning has escaped many a non- drinking Christian.
Scarlett, I mean no offense, but English is not Greek. In other words, just because "wine" in modern English is always alcoholic does not mean that was true in the Greek language. Most words are polysemous in either language, meaning that words often have several meanings, depending on the context. This is called the range of meaning. Wine in English usually means a grape derived drink of 14% to 20%, and moderns drink it just like that. This level of alcohol is not natural from the grape, but is added. However, wine in ancient Greek never had added alcohol, so it was a maximum of 10% when alcoholic, and usually not that much. Then it was diluted.
Now, Jesus did not make modern wine with up to 20% alcohol. First of all, the Greek word
oinos (οἴνος) simply meant "liquid from grapes," not "alcoholic liquid from grapes." When it was naturally alcoholic due to fermentation, it had around 10% alcohol, but after that it was always diluted with water, so that even the heathen did not drink 20% alcoholic wine, but perhaps as little as 3%, which is only half modern beer and nowhere near the level in modern wine. Even the heathen thought it was barbaric not to dilute the wine. Here is a Greek scholar on that:
Was New Testament Wine Alcoholic? - Christ and Culture
Furthermore, there was the possibility that the wine mentioned was grape juice, and then it was called "new wine" with the same word
oinos, meaning completely nonalcoholic wine. Examples are: Matt. 9:17, Mark 2:22, Luke 5:37-38. So
oinos could be grape juice (unlike the English word "wine"). I do recognize a faint possibility that Jesus made alcoholic wine, but (1) if He did it was only about 3% alcohol, and (2) if He really did make alcoholic wine, then our Lord was providing a means to drunkenness for the guests, because they had already "well drunk" of alcoholic wine (v. 10). The Greek word there is
methuo (μεθύω), which is normally used for getting drunk. Here is the definition from Friberg's lexicon:
"literally drink a lot, get drunk (1TH 5.7)." Would Jesus have given alcohol to drunken people? I don't believe so.
Finally, I fail to see how the wine being non-alcoholic would obfuscate any spiritual meaning that alcoholic wine would convey. Just sayin'.
Side story. A KJV-Only missionary started a translation into Japanese from the KJV (never finished it). He used the Japanese loan word
wain (ワイン) from English, meaning modern wine, in John 2, having then Christ making 10-14% modern alcoholic wine (the only meaning of the Japanese word).