Armchair Apologist
Well-Known Member
And I addressed this in my post did I not? Perhaps not as thorough as you may like but I am trying to be efficient in my words as I am often accused of being too loquacious!While I have read the KJV for over 60 years, it may be harder to understand than many of its readers realize. Sometimes readers of the KJV are reading different meanings into its words than what was intended in its Early Modern English.
Even something as seeming simple as prepositions which present readers think that they know may have been used in an uncommon or archaic sense in the 1611 KJV.
Mark Ward makes a great point regarding "false friends" which is relevant here and I would agree that if you use the KJV on a regular basis, you need to be adept at translating 17th century English to what it should actually mean to a 21st century reader or listener! Its nothing that needs to be excessively technical and for the most part, if you simply acknowledge that there is a difference, you should be able to work your way through a passage with little difficulty.
I often find myself poring over a passage in the KJV of which I find difficulty in understanding due to the sentence structure and when I check the same passage in my ESV, I immediately think "Oh, THAT'S what it says! and then translate this understanding into the way I approach the same passage in the KJV. This begs the question though: Rather than doing all that work, why not just use the ESV? Perhaps it is a force of habit or my latent KJVO mindset forcing me to cling to my old King James Cambridge Wide Margin?