The "scriptures" are said to be "Given by the Inspiration of God", and I, therefore, say "The Bible we hold in our is Inspired."

[Alan Dale Gross]

Denial is not a river in Egypt. I won't post anymore on here about you, but I just want to ask the other posters to keep track of how many times you post endless paragraphs, and all hours of the day and night that you post them. I think they'll see what I'm talking about. It's just abnormal behavior.

Maybe it wouldn't be so abnormal, if he had anything to say that's worth a Nickle in six months.

 

[Logos1560]

Alan, is it interesting that you in effect suggest that the scriptural truths that I have presented are not "worth a nickle"?

I am surprised that you would seem to condemn scripturally-based observations and even scriptural truths.
You show that you do not judge righteous judgment.

 

[Alan Dale Gross]

the scriptural truths that I have presented are not "worth a nickle"

I didn't say you have had:

scripturally-based observations

&

scriptural truths.

that are not worth a Nickle.

I said that you don't have a Nickle's worth in Six Months.

You show that you do not judge righteous judgment.

You show you can't read.

 

[Logos1560]

You show you can't read.

You show that you evidently have not read all my posts the past six months or else you bear false witness by misrepresenting my scripturally-based position. I had posted the following part of my scripturally-based position in response to one of your posts in another thread. All my scripture references are to verses in the KJV.

These scriptural instructions and truths provide sound guidance concerning how to know the words which the LORD has or has not spoken (Deut. 18:20-22, Jer. 23:16, Jer. 23:35, Ezek. 22:28, Isa. 8:20, 1 Thess. 5:21, 1 John 4:1). Does following these instructions or this guidance minister doubts concerning God’s words? Would words that go beyond those words that God actually gave to the prophets and apostles be considered the inspired, pure words of God (Num. 22:18)? Was God ministering doubts and questions about His words or was God advocating the practice of textual criticism when He gave His instructions (Deut. 4:2, Deut. 12:32, Prov. 30:6, Eccl. 3:14, Rev. 22:18-19)?

Was God exalting textual criticism by giving his instructions and guidance concerning how to know the words which God has or has not spoken? According to the Scriptures themselves, there is such a thing as the possible adding of words in copies or in Bible translations just as there is the possible omitting of words in copies or in Bible translations. There is also the possibility that words can be diminished or changed by copiers or by translators, introducing possible errors into a copy or into a translation. It can be properly and legitimately concluded from the Scriptures that God has not directly spoken or breathed out words added by men and that any words omitted by copiers should be restored (Deut. 4:2, Deut. 12:32, Prov. 30:6, Prov. 30:6, Rev. 22:18). According to clear scriptural truth, words added by men cannot soundly be considered words given by inspiration of God. Does obeying God’s instructions by removing added words, restoring omitted words, and correcting diminished or changed words actually destroy the authority of the preserved Scriptures?

Since the law or word of the LORD is perfect (Ps. 19:7, James 1:25) and since by definition perfection would exclude the presence of even one imperfection, would imperfect or inaccurate renderings made by men or any errors introduced by men be identical to the absolutely perfect words of God given directly by inspiration to the prophets and apostles? Since the statues or words of the LORD are right (Ps. 19:8, Ps. 33:4), since the words of the LORD are pure (Ps. 12:6. Ps. 119:140), and since the words of God are true (Ps. 19:9, John 17:17, Ps. 119:160, Dan. 10:21), it can be soundly and scripturally concluded that any errors introduced by men in copying, in printing, or in translating are not words spoken or given by God. Any error introduced by a copier, printer, or whomever in copies and in Bible translations can and should be corrected. It could also be soundly concluded that any words, perverted, diminished, or mistranslated by men are not the pure words of God (Jer. 23:36, Deut. 4:2, Jer. 23:28, Deut. 12:32, 2 Cor. 2:17, Jer. 23:16, Jer. 26:2). Maintaining that errors introduced by men or words added by men are not the pure inspired words of God would be soundly distinguishing between what is holy and pure and what is not, and it is not accusing the word of God given by inspiration of corruption, of impurity, or of error.

Just as the source definitely had to be the correct standard, proper authority, and just measure or balance for evaluating the copy; likewise, the words in the preserved original language sources would have to be the proper standard and greater authority for evaluating the different words in a translation made from them (Rom. 11:18, Prov. 16:11, Deut. 16:20, Job 14:4, Deut. 25:13-15, Lev. 19:35-36, Ezek. 45:10, Matt. 7:17, Prov. 11:1, Micah 6:11). Do the Scriptures themselves provide examples that would show that original-language words would be the authority, source, and standard for translated words that translate, interpret, or give the meaning in another language (Matt. 1:23, Mark 5:41, Mark 15:22, Mark 15:34, John 1:41, Acts 4:36)? Appeals to what was written by a prophet or by the prophets would be an acknowledgement of the authority and standard of the original-language words of Scripture (Matt. 2:5, Luke 18:31, John 5:47).

 

[Baptist4life]

The "copy and paste" King is still at it, I see.

 

[Logos1560]

Three or four posters [Alan Dale Gross, JD731, Anthony Pritchard] may copy and paste longer articles than I do.

 

[Alan Dale Gross]

Appeals to what was written by a prophet or by the prophets would be an acknowledgement of the authority and standard of the original-language words of Scripture (Matt. 2:5, Luke 18:31, John 5:47).

"And they said unto Him, In Bethlehem of Judaea: for thus it is written by the prophet", Matthew 2:5.

"Then He took unto Him the twelve, and said unto them, Behold, we go up to Jerusalem, and all things that are written by the prophets concerning the Son of man shall be Accomplished", Luke 18:31.

"But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?”, John 5:47.

These appeals to the copies and translations of what was written by a prophet or by the prophets would be an acknowledgement of the Authority and Standard OF THE COPIES AND TRANSLATIONS, as well as, of the original-language words of Scripture Given to those Prophets Directly by God (Matt. 2:5, Luke 18:31, John 5:47).

 

[Logos1560]

"And they said unto Him, In Bethlehem of Judaea: for thus it is written by the prophet", Matthew 2:5.

"Then He took unto Him the twelve, and said unto them, Behold, we go up to Jerusalem, and all things that are written by the prophets concerning the Son of man shall be Accomplished", Luke 18:31.

"But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?”, John 5:47.

These appeals to the copies and translations of what was written by a prophet or by the prophets would be an acknowledgement of the Authority and Standard OF THE COPIES AND TRANSLATIONS, as well as, of the original-language words of Scripture Given to those Prophets Directly by God (Matt. 2:5, Luke 18:31, John 5:47).

Things written by the prophets would be in the same language as they were written by those prophets so those would not be a reference to post-NT translations. The writings written by Moses himself were not in English.

Do the Scriptures themselves provide examples that would show that original-language words would be the authority, source, and standard for translated words that translate, interpret, or give the meaning in another language (Matt. 1:23, Mark 5:41, Mark 15:22, Mark 15:34, John 1:41, Acts 4:36)? Appeals to what was written by a prophet or by the prophets would be an acknowledgement of the authority and standard of the original-language words of Scripture (Matt. 2:5, Luke 18:31, John 5:47).

Any translating by the prophets or apostles [or by the Holy Spirit for them] in the New Testament would be part of the process of the giving of additional NT revelation and part of the process of the giving all Scripture by the miracle of inspiration to the NT prophets and apostles, and it is not the same as the post-NT process of translating by the makers of the KJV.

 

[JonC]

In 2 Timothy 3:15, we see these words:

Then, some similar words are mentioned in the next verses 2 Timothy 3:16:

The 'scriptures' that those verses are talking about are Alive, "Because the Word of God is Quick, and Powerful,
and sharper than any Two-edged Sword, Piercing even to the Dividing Asunder of soul and spirit,
and of the joints and marrow, and is a Discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart", as we see from Hebrews 4:12.

I this case in 2 Timothy, again, Timothy himself was told by Paul that

"from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures,
which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus", 2 Timothy 3:15.

Jesus also said that His Spirit Gives the New Birth as a Direct Witnesses with His Words.

Jesus Knew His Words would be Recorded and Preserved for us to this day, because He Is God, and He also said that His Words are "Spirit and Life,"

He said, "It is the Spirit that Quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing:
the Words that I Speak unto you, they are Spirit, and they are Life", John 6:63.

So, while I'm saying they are Spirit, they are not The Holy Spirit, still when could we ever imagine The Holy Spirit not Baring Direct Testimony and Witness to God's Words, ANY TIME THEY ARE VIEWED?

Especially, since God said in Isaiah 55:11; "So shall My Word be that Goeth Forth Out of My Mouth:
it shall not Return unto me void, but it shall Accomplish that which I Please,
and it shall Prosper in the thing whereto I Sent it."

In Timothy's case, God's Word Accomplished salvation, by the Enabling Power of The Holy Spirit by;

And to anyone. it is said that all the scriptures may be profitable "for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in Righteousness": right there in the same context where God said that His Words were able to Make Timothy Wise unto salvation;

So, they Accomplish everything God Sends them to do, not to mention this;.

So, what I make of all this is that the "All scriptures" that the Bible says are "Inspired" are exactly the same ones God is talking about in 2 Timothy, when He said, it is "the scriptures" that saved Timothy and that Accomplishes all these other great Godly things.

By that I mean that I believe that the Bible we hold in our hand Contains "the scriptures" and is therefore, "Inspired" just like God tells us "all scripture" are, when Paul says, in 2 Timpthy 3:16;
"All scripture is Given by Inspiration of God".

I say that the scriptures that "Accomplish that which I Please,
and it shall Prosper in the thing whereto I Sent it, God said, that can Make one Wise unto salvation, that are not only "profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness":

but the Bible says
"the Word of God is Quick, and Powerful, and sharper than any Two-edged Sword,
Piercing even to the Dividing Asunder of soul and spirit,
and of the joints and marrow, and is a Discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart",

and in addition to all that the Bible tells us that by the scriptures,
"the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works".

Aren't God's Words Anointed by The Holy Spirit to Enable them to Spiritually Accomplish all those things in the Spirit Realm?

That is "Inspiration" of God.

If so, I believe the Bible itself teaches us right there in 2 Timothy 3 that "all scriptures" that are defined as being "Given by Inspiration of God" and gives us that usage of the word "scripture" where they were able to Make Timothy Wise unto salvation is saying that, by Virtue of being "scripture", they are also just as Anointed and, therefore, just what the Bible tells us they are; "Inspired."

God is saying that His "scriptures" are Inspired, and if we think we need to "believe" that the "Given by the Inspiration of God" means they were only Directly "Breathed" by the "Breath of God" in the Original Autographs, we read again Isaiah 55:11 where God tells us in His scriptures it is when "My Word be that Goeth Forth Out of My Mouth;" from God's Mouth and God certainly has Breath.

The same Words that are the "scriptures" we have, and just like the scriptures, that Jesus and the Apostles had and used as Inspired documents, can and did and will do all the great Spiritual Accomplishments mentioned above because they too are God-Breathed when they Go Forth from His Mouth and are heard or read at any time and are "Given by" and endowed with the "Inspiration of God", that they Maintain in their written form.

I agree that the Scriptures are inspired (the KJV, ESV, NASB, etc).

What people need to remember is that words are symbols. God's Word is not English words on paper but the truths, ideas, events that those words symbolize.

The problem comes in when "Christians" approach God's Word as a big text book of words. They never actually hear God's word.