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Questions for those holding to KJVO Position

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Are the Hebrew and Greek texts in authority over that translation, as in any differences between them, the Greek Hebrew texts correct the Kjv?

What bible passage supports idea of a perfect translation?

Were the 1611 Translators inspired by the Holy Spirit in their translation process?

Why not have and use the Apocrypha, as the first Kjv had them along side the scriptures?
 
Are the Hebrew and Greek texts in authority over that translation, as in any differences between them, the Greek Hebrew texts correct the Kjv?
Yes. They are the ultimate standard. I've yet to find a place where the KJV does not get it right, but I do believe new translations (i.e., foreign work) should be from the Greek and Hebrew, not from the KJV.

What bible passage supports idea of a perfect translation?
I don't believe that is how it should be phrased. Obviously it's not possible for every minute detail to be transferred from one language to another. However, the word perfect means, as Dr. Steve Combs defines it, "Accurate and faithful," which applies to the KJV.

Were the 1611 Translators inspired by the Holy Spirit in their translation process?
No. Their preface makes it clear; they themselves never claimed inspiration, as that is the method of God giving Scripture. I believe that Scripture retains its inspired status even in transmission and translation, but the translators/copists are not inspired.

Why not have and use the Apocrypha, as the first Kjv had them along side the scriptures?
Because:
1) The KJV 1611 contained the Apocrypha outside of the Testaments
2) The KJV 1611 had charts and things as well. This is how the Apocrypha ought to be treated—as additional material for benefit, but not to be treated as infallible
3) John Bois and Samuel Ward removed the Apocrypha in 1629, and there have been KJVs without the Apocrypha ever since.

I have written a blog post on this exact topic, if you'd like to see that. The Apocrypha in the KJV?
 

Conan

Well-Known Member
Yes. They are the ultimate standard. I've yet to find a place where the KJV does not get it right, but I do believe new translations (i.e., foreign work) should be from the Greek and Hebrew, not from the KJV.


I don't believe that is how it should be phrased. Obviously it's not possible for every minute detail to be transferred from one language to another. However, the word perfect means, as Dr. Steve Combs defines it, "Accurate and faithful," which applies to the KJV.


No. Their preface makes it clear; they themselves never claimed inspiration, as that is the method of God giving Scripture. I believe that Scripture retains its inspired status even in transmission and translation, but the translators/copists are not inspired.


Because:
1) The KJV 1611 contained the Apocrypha outside of the Testaments
2) The KJV 1611 had charts and things as well. This is how the Apocrypha ought to be treated—as additional material for benefit, but not to be treated as infallible
3) John Bois and Samuel Ward removed the Apocrypha in 1629, and there have been KJVs without the Apocrypha ever since.

I have written a blog post on this exact topic, if you'd like to see that. The Apocrypha in the KJV?
Actually they were printed inside the Testaments. Right smack in-between the two. In the Middle. Old Testament. Apocrypha. New Testament. And the Apocrypha were in the major KJV Printed editions even as late as 1779.
 
Actually they were printed inside the Testaments. Right smack in-between the two. In the Middle. Old Testament. Apocrypha. New Testament.
And yet this is a common Protestant way of denoting the Apocrypha wasn't Scripture. The KJV clearly marked the Apocrypha as separate from the Testaments, and all the per-page headers simply said "Apocrypha."

And the Apocrypha were in the major KJV Printed editions even as late as 1779.
Are 1629 and 1638 not major editions?

"King Charles the First, in 1638, had another edition printed at Cambridge, which was revised by Dr. Ward and Mr. Bois, two of the original Translators who still survived" McClure, A. W. The Translators Revived; A Biographical Memoir of the Authors of the English Version of the Holy Bible. Charles Scribner, 1853. p. 194.

Both 1629 and 1638 were done with the help of Samuel Ward and John Bois—two men from the original KJV committee. Additionally, the 1638 was commanded to be printed by King Charles himself. Thus, I do not know how you define "major editions," but I assume 1629 and 1638 would satisfy.
 

Eternally Grateful

Active Member
Yes. They are the ultimate standard. I've yet to find a place where the KJV does not get it right, but I do believe new translations (i.e., foreign work) should be from the Greek and Hebrew, not from the KJV.
wow really?
I don't believe that is how it should be phrased. Obviously it's not possible for every minute detail to be transferred from one language to another. However, the word perfect means, as Dr. Steve Combs defines it, "Accurate and faithful," which applies to the KJV.
While it may be accurate and faithful. It is still flawed. as is any English text. Based alone on the English language itself. which is flawed.
No. Their preface makes it clear; they themselves never claimed inspiration, as that is the method of God giving Scripture. I believe that Scripture retains its inspired status even in transmission and translation, but the translators/copists are not inspired.
where is the "inspired" word in other languages? or did God just give us one in english in the 15-1600's?
Because:
1) The KJV 1611 contained the Apocrypha outside of the Testaments
2) The KJV 1611 had charts and things as well. This is how the Apocrypha ought to be treated—as additional material for benefit, but not to be treated as infallible
3) John Bois and Samuel Ward removed the Apocrypha in 1629, and there have been KJVs without the Apocrypha ever since.

I have written a blog post on this exact topic, if you'd like to see that. The Apocrypha in the KJV?
 

Eternally Grateful

Active Member
And yet this is a common Protestant way of denoting the Apocrypha wasn't Scripture.
do what? Are you catholic? pumping up the KJV
The KJV clearly marked the Apocrypha as separate from the Testaments, and all the per-page headers simply said "Apocrypha."


Are 1629 and 1638 not major editions?

"King Charles the First, in 1638, had another edition printed at Cambridge, which was revised by Dr. Ward and Mr. Bois, twTo of the original Translators who still survived" McClure, A. W. The Translators Revived; A Biographical Memoir of the Authors of the English Version of the Holy Bible. Charles Scribner, 1853. p. 194.

Both 1629 and 1638 were done with the help of Samuel Ward and John Bois—two men from the original KJV committee. Additionally, the 1638 was commanded to be printed by King Charles himself. Thus, I do not know how you define "major editions," but I assume 1629 and 1638 would satisfy.
what do we do with the mass contradictions found in the apocrypha? as compared to the rest of scripture?
 
While it may be accurate and faithful. It is still flawed. as is any English text. Based alone on the English language itself. which is flawed.
I can't tell if you mean the KJV is based on an English text, thus it's flawed, or exactly what you mean. But assuming you are, the KJV compared the Bishops' Bible (which it was based upon) with the Greek and Hebrew texts they had, and then either corrected the Bishops' Bible or left it as is when it was correct.

I've looked at many things regarding the KJV, and I've never found a flaw in it. Sure, there's some very minor aspects to the Hebrew (I study Hebrew, so I don't know Greek to try and even look for such things) that cannot be translated into English. This does not mean the KJV is not faithful and accurate, because it is. More so than other translations.

where is the "inspired" word in other languages? or did God just give us one in english in the 15-1600's?
For Spanish especially, I would say the Reina Valera Gómez Bible. Outside of that, I'm not informed enough to make any calls on other languages.
 
do what? Are you catholic? pumping up the KJV
I am not Catholic. I am simply stating that the KJV, just like Luther's German translation and other such Protestant Bibles, placed the Apocrypha between the Testaments to denote they didn't believe it was Scripture.

what do we do with the mass contradictions found in the apocrypha? as compared to the rest of scripture?
I don't have to worry about that—I'm not Catholic. I have notes from when I've gone through some of the apocryphal books, and I know there are a lot of contradictions. That's why I could absolutely never accept them as Scripture.
 

Eternally Grateful

Active Member
I can't tell if you mean the KJV is based on an English text, thus it's flawed, or exactly what you mean. But assuming you are, the KJV compared the Bishops' Bible (which it was based upon) with the Greek and Hebrew texts they had, and then either corrected the Bishops' Bible or left it as is when it was correct.

I've looked at many things regarding the KJV, and I've never found a flaw in it. Sure, there's some very minor aspects to the Hebrew (I study Hebrew, so I don't know Greek to try and even look for such things) that cannot be translated into English. This does not mean the KJV is not faithful and accurate, because it is. More so than other translations.
there is no perfect English text. the English language is flawed. for example, one word (love) to interpret 4 greek words (agape, phileo, sarx, eros) so when you see the word love. which for of love did the original Author use. without consulting greek text. its impossible to know

While there are some bad ones. To rely solely on an English text and think you have a full meaning of the word. You would fail
For Spanish especially, I would say the Reina Valera Gómez Bible. Outside of that, I'm not informed enough to make any calls on other languages.
Its all good.
 

Eternally Grateful

Active Member
I am not Catholic. I am simply stating that the KJV, just like Luther's German translation and other such Protestant Bibles, placed the Apocrypha between the Testaments to denote they didn't believe it was Scripture.
noted. thank you
I don't have to worry about that—I'm not Catholic. I have notes from when I've gone through some of the apocryphal books, and I know there are a lot of contradictions. That's why I could absolutely never accept them as Scripture.
There is good data in there. Maccabees has a lot of great history.. but yes. Not scripture.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
3) John Bois and Samuel Ward removed the Apocrypha in 1629, and there have been KJVs without the Apocrypha ever since.
What is your documented evidence that the Apocrypha was removed from all copies of the 1629 Cambridge KJV edition?

KJV editions in the 1600's were printed unbound by the printer, and they had to be taken to a book binder to be bound. Someone could buy an edition of the KJV and remove the pages with the Apocrypha and have it bound, but that would not prove that it was actually printed without it. In addition, it would be possible that an edition of the 1629 Cambridge KJV edition was later rebound with the pages with the Apocrypha removed. The fact that one or two or even a few copies of the 1629 Cambridge KJV edition may exist without the Apocrypha today would not be proof that it was originally printed without it.

Archbishop George Abbot, one of the KJV translators, issued in 1615 an order forbidding the sale of Bibles without the Apocrypha (Simms, Bible from the Beginning, p. 198). KJV-only advocate Jack Moorman also acknowledged that Abbot "in 1615 forbade anyone to issue a Bible without the Apocrypha on pain of one year's imprisonment" (Forever Settled, p. 183).

In his book A Textual History of the King James Bible, David Norton listed changes in the Apocrypha that were made in the 1629 Cambridge edition which indicates that it was part of it.
 
there is no perfect English text. the English language is flawed. for example, one word (love) to interpret 4 greek words (agape, phileo, sarx, eros) so when you see the word love. which for of love did the original Author use. without consulting greek text. its impossible to know

While there are some bad ones. To rely solely on an English text and think you have a full meaning of the word. You would fail
I am not a Greek expert (as I've already stated), so I will not try and argue this. But I do think it's a bit of a double standard to accuse English itself to be flawed.

Let's pretend for a moment that God had inspired His Word in English rather than Greek. I assume you have used the reverse of this argument—that Greek is flawed for having used more words for love than the English did.

That's not a flaw of English, because I don't really believe any language can have "flaws" in the fullest sense.
 
What is your documented evidence that the Apocrypha was removed from all copies of the 1629 Cambridge KJV edition?
"In 1629, a revision was produced by [C]ambridge University. Dr. Samuel Ward and Dean John Bois, from the original 1611 translating committee, were involved in this revision. It is the 1629 revision that dropped the Apocrypha from its position between the testaments of Scripture." Stringer, Dr. Phil. The Unbroken Bible. The Bible Nation Society, 2018. p. 287.

KJV editions in the 1600's were printed unbound by the printer, and they had to be taken to a book binder to be bound. Someone could buy an edition of the KJV and remove the pages with the Apocrypha and have it bound, but that would not prove that it was actually printed without it. In addition, it would be possible that an edition of the 1629 Cambridge KJV edition was later rebound with the pages with the Apocrypha removed. The fact that one or two or even a few copies of the 1629 Cambridge KJV edition may exist without the Apocrypha today would not be proof that it was originally printed without it.
That is possible, and I had not thought about that. However, I do trust Dr. Stringer's work on this, and regardless, editions soon to follow were printed without it.

Archbishop George Abbot, one of the KJV translators, issued in 1615 an order forbidding the sale of Bibles without the Apocrypha (Simms, Bible from the Beginning, p. 198). KJV-only advocate Jack Moorman also acknowledged that Abbot "in 1615 forbade anyone to issue a Bible without the Apocrypha on pain of one year's imprisonment" (Forever Settled, p. 183).
And people disobeyed him, clearly so.

In his book A Textual History of the King James Bible, David Norton listed changes in the Apocrypha that were made in the 1629 Cambridge edition which indicates that it was part of it.
I never ended up reading that book, but I skimmed through it (I ended up tossing it out because I couldn't agree with the front cover image). I don't recall ever reading him mention the 1629. If you could provide a quotation, that would be most beneficial.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
"In 1629, a revision was produced by [C]ambridge University. Dr. Samuel Ward and Dean John Bois, from the original 1611 translating committee, were involved in this revision. It is the 1629 revision that dropped the Apocrypha from its position between the testaments of Scripture." Stringer, Dr. Phil. The Unbroken Bible. The Bible Nation Society, 2018. p. 287.
Phil Stringer provided no sound proof for his claim that the 1629 revision dropped the Apocrypha. Phil Stringer is somewhat uninformed and misinformed concerning KJV editions. You have been misinformed by Phil Stringer.

D. A. Waite assumed and claimed: “The Cambridge University Press, for instance, has not altered the Authorized King James Bible and has kept it intact. It is a fixed phenomenon” (Central Seminary Refuted, p. 141). Others may have accepted Waite’s unproven claim about his edition of the KJV in his Defined KJB being the 1769 Cambridge. For example, Phil Stringer wrote: “I identify completely with the statement by Pastor Robert Barnett (Dean Burgon Society meeting, July, 2010).” Phil Stringer quoted Barnett’s comment about “God’s truth in our 1769 Cambridge edition of the King James Bible” (Messianic Claims of Gail Riplinger, p. 97).

Waite's Defined KJB and other post-1900 KJV editions are not the 1769 Cambridge edition unaltered. Actual verifiable evidence would show that the KJV edition in Waite’s Defined KJB would be actually based more on the 1769 Oxford than on a 1769 Cambridge since the 1769 Cambridge did not have all the changes introduced in the 1769 Oxford that are followed or found in Waite’s edition. The actual text of a KJV edition printed at Cambridge in 1769 still has the three errors (2 Chron. 33:19, Jer. 34:16, Nahum 3:16) that Waite and others incorrectly blamed on Oxford University Press.

A 1769 Cambridge still had some of the typical characteristic renderings found in the 1743 and 1762 standard Cambridge editions, and those are not found in typical post-1900 Cambridge editions. A few example characteristic renderings in the 1743, 1762, and 1769 Cambridge editions could include “all lost things” (Deut. 22:3), “in the judgement” (Matt. 12:41), “afterwards” (Luke 4:2), “and he cried out” (Luke 4:33), “lifted” (Luke 16:23), “number of the names” (Acts 1:15), “killedst” (Acts 7:28), “from things strangled” (Acts 21:25), “and have gained” (Acts 27:21), “in utterance” (2 Cor. 8:7), “in knowledge” (2 Cor. 8:7), “those who” (Gal. 2:6), “and I beseech” (Phil. 4:2), and “be ye warmed and be ye filled” (James 2:18). A distinctive rendering of the 1762 and 1769 Cambridge is “sent messengers” at Genesis 50:16 although that rendering is from the 1638 Cambridge.

The 1769 Cambridge edition also had a few different or distinctive renderings whether intentional editing corrections or unintentional printing errors [see Gen. 2:14, Gen. 31:38, Gen. 44:10, Exod. 12:30, Deut. 2:22, Judges 8:27, 1 Sam. 7:10, 2 Sam. 19:18, 2 Sam. 23:3, 2 Kings 9:16, Job 9:30, Matt. 28:12, Acts 27:40, Rom. 10:7]. The 1769 Cambridge would apparently have an intentional editing change at Genesis 31:38 [“These twenty years”] since “these” is a demonstrative used as an adjective that grammatically would be used with a noun plural in number while “this” would be used as an adjective with a noun singular in number. This alteration or grammatical correction in the 1769 at Genesis 31:38 would be in agreement with “these forty years” (Deut. 2:7, 8:2, 8:4), “these two times” (Gen. 27:36), and “these many years” (Luke 15:29, Rom. 15:23). This alteration is not unique to the 1769 Cambridge since it was also in several earlier Oxford editions (1709, 1713, 1722, 1737, 1743, 1749, 1753, 1756, 1760, 1762) and is found in over thirty KJV editions. Another deliberate alteration at Matthew 28:12 [“large sums of money” for “large money”] could be regarded as a distinctive mark of the 1769 Cambridge.

KJV-only advocates seem to be uninformed concerning which renderings could be regarded to characterize the text of the 1769 Cambridge. I have a 1769 Cambridge KJV edition that was printed at Cambridge in 1769 and have compared it firsthand to present post-1900 KJV editions. I found over 1000 alterations or differences between an actual 1769 Cambridge KJV edition and the Cambridge edition in Waite's Defined KJB, which are listed in the book TODAY'S KJV AND 1769 COMPARED.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The revised 1629 Cambridge of the KJV corrected some of the errors kept from the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible that had been left uncorrected in the 1611 edition. David Norton maintained that a clear error in the 1602 Bishops’ Bible at 1 Kings 8:61 [“the Lord your God”] was kept in the 1611 edition while the 1568 Bishops’ Bible had the correct rendering [‘the Lord our God’” (Textual History, p. 36). The 1611 KJV edition also kept uncorrected the error of the name of the wrong group of people “Amorites” (1 Kings 11:5) that is in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible. Could failure to correct this error of fact from the 1602 Bishops’ Bible make the KJV translators responsible for this error being in the 1611 KJV? KJV-only author Jack McElroy claimed that the Lord “won’t accept material error (i.e., errors of fact, history, geography, Science, & doctrine) in his holy book” (Bible Version Secrets, p. 472). David Norton noted: “In both cases earlier editions of the Bishops’ Bible and the other versions all had the correct reading; the errors were picked up and corrected in 1629” (Textual History, p. 36). The 1629 Cambridge in agreement with the Hebrew, with the 1560 Geneva Bible, and with the 1568 Bishops’ Bible has the correct name of the right group of people “Ammonites” at 1 Kings 11:5. In another example, David Norton also observed that “the present tense at Acts 23:3, ‘then saith Paul,‘ where the Greek and the context require the past, also comes from the 1602 text” while the 1568 Bishops’ text had “then said Paul” (Textual History, p. 36). David Norton suggested that the keeping of errors from the 1602 text is “important for establishing that the [KJV] translators were fallible in their attention to the text: sometimes they nodded” (Ibid.). David Norton asserted: “Several times a Bishops’ Bible mistake creeps apparently unnoticed into the KJB text” (KJB: Short History, p. 130). At 2 Kings 24:19, the 1611 edition has the name of the wrong king “Jehoiachin,” introduced from the 1602 edition’s “Joachin.” If the KJV translators had noticed this error of fact at 2 King 24:19 in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible, they failed to make sure that the printers at London corrected it since it remained in editions of the KJV printed at London in 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1630, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644, 1650, 1652, 1655, 1657, and 1698. Would Jack McElroy suggest that since the 1611 edition and some other KJV editions are factually and historically wrong in its renderings at 1 Kings 11:5 and 2 Kings 24:19 that it was the Lord Jesus Christ who allowed these errors to appear in the KJV (Bible Version Secrets, p. 202)? The 1629 Cambridge edition corrected this error of fact in the 1611 edition with the name of the right king Jehoiakim.

The revised 1629 Cambridge KJV introduced the rendering “in utterance” at 2 Corinthians 8:7 and introduced “thy doctrine” at 1 Timothy 4:16. In The New Englander (Vol. 37, September, 1878), this is stated: “In 1629 a typographical error crept in a Cambridge edition, which re-appeared for many years, so that 1 Timothy 4:16 read ‘Take heed unto thyself and unto thy doctrine,’ for ‘the doctrine’” (p. 701).

The correction “GOD” for “God” at Genesis 6:5 was likely first introduced in the 1629. At Deuteronomy 26:1, 1629 Cambridge put the correction “the LORD thy God” for the 1611’s edition’s “the LORD.” KJV-only author Jack McElroy wrote: “The 1611 translators decided to drop the literal ‘Thy God.’ We know this because the 1602 Bishop’s Bible they used as a printer’s model had the words Thy God crossed out” (Which Bible, p. 197). Concerning Deuteronomy 5:29 and its rendering “keep all my commandments,” David Norton asserted: “1629 corrects by the Hebrew” (Textual History, p. 222). About the rendering “the sacrifices” instead of the 1611’s “the sacrifice,” David Norton declared: “1629 is a correction in the light of the Hebrew” (p. 212).

At Judges 21:19, the 1611 edition may have followed the Bishops’ Bible with its rendering “Lebanon” while the revised 1629 Cambridge edition adopted the 1560 Geneva Bible’s rendering “Lebonah.” Concerning “to thy mischief” at 2 Samuel 16:8, Scrivener wrote: “The Translators give what they hold to be the general sense in the text, reserving a more literal rendering for the margin” (Authorized Edition, p. 219, footnote 2). The 1611 marginal note at 2 Samuel 16:8 stated: “Hebr. behold thee in thy evil.” The revised 1629 Cambridge takes the “in” from the more literal rendering in the 1611 marginal note and puts it in the text instead of the 1611 edition’s “to”. It was the standard 1629 Cambridge edition that substituted “travel” at Numbers 20:14 for the 1611 edition’s “travail” although “travel” was first found in a 1614 London edition.
 
Phil Stringer provided no sound proof for his claim that the 1629 revision dropped the Apocrypha. Phil Stringer is somewhat uninformed and misinformed concerning KJV editions. You have been misinformed by Phil Stringer.

D. A. Waite assumed and claimed: “The Cambridge University Press, for instance, has not altered the Authorized King James Bible and has kept it intact. It is a fixed phenomenon” (Central Seminary Refuted, p. 141). Others may have accepted Waite’s unproven claim about his edition of the KJV in his Defined KJB being the 1769 Cambridge. For example, Phil Stringer wrote: “I identify completely with the statement by Pastor Robert Barnett (Dean Burgon Society meeting, July, 2010).” Phil Stringer quoted Barnett’s comment about “God’s truth in our 1769 Cambridge edition of the King James Bible” (Messianic Claims of Gail Riplinger, p. 97).

Waite's Defined KJB and other post-1900 KJV editions are not the 1769 Cambridge edition unaltered. Actual verifiable evidence would show that the KJV edition in Waite’s Defined KJB would be actually based more on the 1769 Oxford than on a 1769 Cambridge since the 1769 Cambridge did not have all the changes introduced in the 1769 Oxford that are followed or found in Waite’s edition. The actual text of a KJV edition printed at Cambridge in 1769 still has the three errors (2 Chron. 33:19, Jer. 34:16, Nahum 3:16) that Waite and others incorrectly blamed on Oxford University Press.

A 1769 Cambridge still had some of the typical characteristic renderings found in the 1743 and 1762 standard Cambridge editions, and those are not found in typical post-1900 Cambridge editions. A few example characteristic renderings in the 1743, 1762, and 1769 Cambridge editions could include “all lost things” (Deut. 22:3), “in the judgement” (Matt. 12:41), “afterwards” (Luke 4:2), “and he cried out” (Luke 4:33), “lifted” (Luke 16:23), “number of the names” (Acts 1:15), “killedst” (Acts 7:28), “from things strangled” (Acts 21:25), “and have gained” (Acts 27:21), “in utterance” (2 Cor. 8:7), “in knowledge” (2 Cor. 8:7), “those who” (Gal. 2:6), “and I beseech” (Phil. 4:2), and “be ye warmed and be ye filled” (James 2:18). A distinctive rendering of the 1762 and 1769 Cambridge is “sent messengers” at Genesis 50:16 although that rendering is from the 1638 Cambridge.

The 1769 Cambridge edition also had a few different or distinctive renderings whether intentional editing corrections or unintentional printing errors [see Gen. 2:14, Gen. 31:38, Gen. 44:10, Exod. 12:30, Deut. 2:22, Judges 8:27, 1 Sam. 7:10, 2 Sam. 19:18, 2 Sam. 23:3, 2 Kings 9:16, Job 9:30, Matt. 28:12, Acts 27:40, Rom. 10:7]. The 1769 Cambridge would apparently have an intentional editing change at Genesis 31:38 [“These twenty years”] since “these” is a demonstrative used as an adjective that grammatically would be used with a noun plural in number while “this” would be used as an adjective with a noun singular in number. This alteration or grammatical correction in the 1769 at Genesis 31:38 would be in agreement with “these forty years” (Deut. 2:7, 8:2, 8:4), “these two times” (Gen. 27:36), and “these many years” (Luke 15:29, Rom. 15:23). This alteration is not unique to the 1769 Cambridge since it was also in several earlier Oxford editions (1709, 1713, 1722, 1737, 1743, 1749, 1753, 1756, 1760, 1762) and is found in over thirty KJV editions. Another deliberate alteration at Matthew 28:12 [“large sums of money” for “large money”] could be regarded as a distinctive mark of the 1769 Cambridge.

KJV-only advocates seem to be uninformed concerning which renderings could be regarded to characterize the text of the 1769 Cambridge. I have a 1769 Cambridge KJV edition that was printed at Cambridge in 1769 and have compared it firsthand to present post-1900 KJV editions. I found over 1000 alterations or differences between an actual 1769 Cambridge KJV edition and the Cambridge edition in Waite's Defined KJB, which are listed in the book TODAY'S KJV AND 1769 COMPARED.
No offense, but I didn't ask for a lecture on the 1769. Those are foolish statements from those men, but I use the Pure Cambridge Edition of the KJV as I believe it most properly reflects what the translators' work is when you remove the typographical errors.
 
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