Are the Hebrew and Greek texts in authority over that translation, as in any differences between them, the Greek Hebrew texts correct the Kjv?
What bible passage supports idea of a perfect translation?
Were the 1611 Translators inspired by the Holy Spirit in their translation process?
Why not have and use the Apocrypha, as the first Kjv had them along side the scriptures?
What bible passage supports idea of a perfect translation?
Were the 1611 Translators inspired by the Holy Spirit in their translation process?
Why not have and use the Apocrypha, as the first Kjv had them along side the scriptures?