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  1. David Lamb

    Great God shall reward the fool and transgressors!!!

    The NKJV has: “The great God who formed everything Gives the fool his hire and the transgressor his wages.” (Pr 26:10 NKJV) The word translated "rewardeth" in the KJV means: 1) to hire 1a) (Qal) to hire 1b) (Niphal) to hire oneself out 1c) (Hithpael) to earn wages So the meaning, as far...
  2. David Lamb

    Calvin denied Lucifer is Satan

    Well I have just read through that chapter. The characters I saw mentioned in the chapter are: The Lord, Ezekiel, the Prince of Tyre, Daniel, strangers, the King of Tyre, the inhabitants of Sidon, Israel, Jacob, and the Gentiles. I couldn't see any mention of Satan.
  3. David Lamb

    Do the KJVO consider any translation valid then to use?

    Do you mean translations of the KJV into other languages, like French, Mongolian, Icelandic, Turkish? If so, why do you believe that speakers of languages other than English should have to make do with a translation of a translation? Or do you mean translations of the Hebrew Old Testament and...
  4. David Lamb

    Was the Nkjv translated from same sorce texts as used by the 1611 translators for Kjv then?

    I did read the link. As to why the end of 1 John 2:23 is in italics, John Gill explains: [but he that acknowledgeth the Son, hath the Father also]: this clause is left out in many copies, and stands as a supplement in our version; but is in the Alexandrian copy, in four of Beza's...
  5. David Lamb

    Where did the king's men get these words?

    But the word of God was originally given by God in Hebrew and Greek. Italics in English translations indicate that the words were inserted by the translators, usually in order to make sense in English, because when you translate from one language to another, if you just do it word for word, you...
  6. David Lamb

    Was the Nkjv translated from same sorce texts as used by the 1611 translators for Kjv then?

    In that case, why are the words in italics in the KJV? Italics are used when English words have been inserted by the translators which do not translate any word(s) in the original language. Don't misunderstand me. I am not saying that the verse isn't referring to God's love. The context...
  7. David Lamb

    Where did the king's men get these words?

    True, but autocorrect doesn't change ordinary print into italic, does it?
  8. David Lamb

    Where did the king's men get these words?

    I don't understand what you mean. Computers aren't necessary to print in italics, and plenty of editions of the bible in English published before the computer age have words in italics. I think I may have misunderstood you.
  9. David Lamb

    Was the Nkjv translated from same sorce texts as used by the 1611 translators for Kjv then?

    The NKJV didn't remove "of God" because those words don't appear in the original Greek, which is why the KJV puts them in italics: 16 Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us: and we ought to lay down [our] lives for the brethren.
  10. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    Perhaps in a very few places, such as the use of the word "bishops" rather than "overseers," but I think if we didn't already know who the translators were, it would be difficult to work out that the KJV had been translated by Anglicans.
  11. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    I cannot imagine it was because they were Baptists. I can't see anything that goes against Baptist teaching in the other translations of the Genesis verse: “Let not my soul enter their council; Let not my honor be united to their assembly; For in their anger they slew a man, And in their...
  12. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    I agree. I don't know why.
  13. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    As it seems from sources I have looked at that very few of the manuscripts have the part about Phoebe/Phebe writing the letter, I don't believe she did. An even better reason for believing that she didn't write it is that we are actually told in the letter who did: “I, Tertius, who wrote this...
  14. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    Not sure which other thread you mean, so I'll justsay here that I see from your link that the "Baptist version" has these words at the end of Romans 16: "Written to the Romans from Corinth by Phebe servant of the church of Cenchrea." However, of course there is nothing to say where those words...
  15. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    Thanks, and thanks for the link.
  16. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    In that case I apologise. I had never heard of a Baptist revision of the AV before reading about it on this thread.
  17. David Lamb

    Is vigor same as sin?

    Phoebe wrote Romans? Yet Romans opens: “1 ¶ Paul, a bondservant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated to the gospel of God 2 which He promised before through His prophets in the Holy Scriptures,” (Ro 1:1-2 NKJV) Phoebe is mentioned by Paul in Romans 16: “I commend to you Phoebe...
  18. David Lamb

    The NIV and ESV refer to Jesus as an “it” in 1 John 1:2

    That's fine. I'm sure it was a genuine mistake. Thanks.
  19. David Lamb

    The True Gospel Preacher

    Exactly. We don't contribute to our salvation by our works, but if we are saved, that should show itself in good works.
  20. David Lamb

    John Calvin - Textual critic

    Thanks for that. Although I usually find myself in agreement with Calvin, I don't agree with what he seems to say about errors in the Scriptures.
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