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Literally. That's what it says.

Yes, Jewish church-age believers (the saints) and Gentile church-age believers (the fellow) form one body. I'm not sure what you're saying.

I did not say "have no part" unqualifiedly. I said they are not part of the spiritual body of Christ. The new heavenly Jerusalem (which is not the same as the new earthly Jerusalem) unites heaven and earth, as it were. I'm not sure what the problem is with the name of the 12 patriarchs and the...

Would you care to elaborate? Because my instinct is to reply: "precisely".

Revelation 21 is more about them than us (the body of Christ).

Who do you mean by "they"? (just to be clear)

Not all believers are part of the church, the body of Christ. There are different saved spiritual entities: Israel the wife of the Father The church is the wife of the Son (all who are saved by faith alone, from, basically, the cross to the church's rapture) Then there will guests, queens...

Dispensationally that is aimed at tribulation saints, not church age saints. Of course, some principles carry over across dispensations, but failure to observe the dispensational context never results in a correct interpretation. Also, taking up the sword for warfare, and taking up the sword to...

Right. I don't have to define how he was made sin. But the Bible says "sin". Not "sin offering". Sin exists as a literal metaphysical reality on its own according to some Bible verses.

It is outside of usage in Greek.

Of course they do; that's precisely the point of what I said brother. The Septuagint was retro-actively designed to match those quotes. It is clearly a post NT work.

I did not say it doesn't matter. I said that it being common does not automatically follow.

A) True, and that is a peculiarity of the Hebrew. Paul did not write 2Corinthians 5 in Hebrew. You would have to show the identical phenomenon in Greek. B) Even if one could show that in Greek, it still would not automatically follow that that must be the intended sense. A) The notion that...

There is no "offering" in the verse. 2Co 5:21 τον γαρ μη γνοντα αμαρτιαν υπερ ημων αμαρτιαν εποιησεν ινα ημεις γινωμεθα δικαιοσυνη θεου εν αυτω Pulpit Commentary: "Many have understood the word "sin" in the sense of sin offering (Le Gal_5:9, LXX.); but that is a precarious application of the...

When it comes to such dreadful topics, all I am sure of is what the verse says: Christ was made sin for us. I know that, in the context of the cross, the Lord likened his body to Moses' serpent on the pole and to a worm.

Are you rubbing your hands in hope of your heresy radar lighting up? I said only what the verse said. He hath made him to be sin for us. Nothing more, nothing less. I don't add to the word of God the word "offering", I don't change the word of God to "sinner".

How can it be heresy when the verse says it?

I am inclined to think that those "people" would agree as fast as you would that simply saying a prayer, as if it were a magic incantation, is of no avail unto salvation. I suspect those "people" would qualify their statement as assuming that the person believed the true gospel (of salvation by...

I don't believe in "Lordship Salvation", as it was aptly described in the quote, and yes, John Wesley was wrong about that, but the pejorative phrase "such as heretics like John Wesley" is cringe-inducing. I would gladly trade-in half my correct doctrines to be as spiritual a man as John Wesley was.

The issue hinges on whether one defines "work" philosophically, or scripturally: Philosophically, any human free will act, be it a mere volition or mental assent, can be classified as a work. Scripturally, a work is usually a work of the law and/or any righteous deed. When the scriptures say...