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While Burgon believed that the TR was superior to all the other Greek texts of the time, he was well aware that the TR needed correcting. The same is true of his friend, colleague, and posthumous editor Edward Miller.

Yes I have. I think Price does an excellent job.

I could not agree more.

https://www.jamesdprice.com/images/33_King_James_Onlyism.pdf The Life and Research of James D. Price

Sorry I can't be of much help on that. Even though I am very familiar with many works by F. F. Bruce, I have never read that one. I pulled my copy of Toward off the shelf in order to refresh my memory and found Bruce in the bibliography (only one citation). I next checked the author index and...

I have always found Dr. Kaiser to be a very reliable scholar. The first book I ever read by Dr. Kaiser was Toward an Exegetical Theology: Biblical Exegesis for Preaching and Teaching way back in 1981.

Also see: There is no one like the God of Jeshurun, who rides across the heavens to help you and on the clouds in his majesty. (NIV Deut 33:26) Sing to God, sing in praise of his name, extol him who rides on the clouds; rejoice before him—his name is the LORD. (NIV Psa 68:4)

:Thumbsup:Thumbsup:Thumbsup:Thumbsup:Thumbsup:Thumbsup:Thumbsup

No doubt you are correct. The online version has corrected the error. Christian Standard Bible

Never said it didn't. Moreover, the same can be said for other parts of speech, for example participles. Again, never said it wasn't. Nevertheless there are limits. I notice you left it out.

I never said "only." That is what the 2nd editions has. The 3rd edition does it a bit differently. The meaning is given under the heading: 3. w. acc. (pseudepigr. and apolog. throughout) marker of movement or orientation toward someone/someth. (p. 874) Then subjection: g. by, at, near πρός...

I am not saying there are no verses which could be translated word for word but this example really does not fit. ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος In [the] beginning was the word (no article in the Greek text) καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν and the word was to the God (the noun θεός has an article, the...

Is there any reason why those passages could not be understood as references to those in the netherworld rather than the grave?

All right. Thank you. The phrase under the earth you say refers to death and burial. Could you point to some specific instances in the Scriptures where the phrase (i.e. under the earth) unquestionably refers to burial?

Are there any second temple period sources for this Jewish tradition?

List of witnesses from THGNT

There is one other. The Sahidic (Coptic) version does. The Coptic version of the New Testament in the Southern dialect : otherwise called Sahidic and Thebaic ; with critical apparatus, literal English translation, register of fragments and estimate of the version

I am merely pointing out something I noticed in the article and found interesting.

In 2 Kings 18:26, Ezra 4:7, Isaiah 36:11 and Daniel 2:4 the term used is אֲרָמִית (= Aramaic). The article cites Isaiah 36:11-14 which I find interesting. Note the word "Hebrew" in bold. 11 Then Eliakim, Shebna and Joah said to the field commander, "Please speak to your servants in Aramaic...

:Laugh:Roflmao